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Exam Code: 000-M97
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BigInsights Technical Mastery Test v1 )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 To help firms analyze text-based data, BigInsights provides which of the following?
A. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Pig.
B. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from HQL (Hive).
C. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Jaql.
D. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Flume.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. All nodes in the cluster should have the same hardware.
B. Master nodes need to have more reliable hardware than slave nodes.
C. Slave nodes need to have more reliable hardware than master nodes.
D. All nodes in the cluster must have reliable hardware except for disks.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What mode is best suited for application developers?
A. Standalone (local) mode.
B. Pseudo-distributed mode.
C. Fully-distributed mode.
D. It does not matter, all are about the same.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What will happen when a NameNode runs out of memory?
A. It will crash.
B. It will start swapping data to disk as long as swappiness is greater than 0.
C. It will move part of the workload to secondary name node.
D. It will start delaying some jobs to accommodate currently running jobs.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Hadoop is configured with FAIR scheduler. We have three queues defined : production, development,
and QA. The production queue has a minimum share defined as 5. Other queues do not have minimum
shares defined. QA has a weight defined as 2. Other queues do not have weight associated with them.
Assuming that Production queue has demand of 100 tasks, Development of 30 tasks, and QA of 25 tasks
with total of 30 tasks available in JobTracker for all queues, how many tasks per queue will be allocated.?
A. Production: 5, Development: 10, QA: 15
B. Production: 10, Development: 10, QA: 10
C. Production: 8, Development: 8, QA: 14
D. Production: 6, Development: 6, QA: 18
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-317
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.0, Core Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A system administrator has completed a WebSphere installation using the IBM Installation Manager.
Which tool, using the default settings, can the administrator use to generate an HTML file verifying the
version of WebSphere installed? Execute the:
A. postinstall command.
B. versionInfo command.
C. genVersionReport command.
D. Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
Answer: C

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NO.2 A system administrator needs to submit a wsadmin job to change the configuration of an enterprise
application within a flexible management environment. What should the administrator do? Connect to:
A. Node Agent
B. Administrative Agent
C. Job Manager
D. Work Manager
E. Deployment Manager
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 A system administrator configures the intelligent runtime provisioning feature included with WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V8.0. The default WebSphere settings are in place. At what level
will the administrator enable runtime provisioning?
A. node agent
B. web container
C. application server
D. deployment manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 A system administrator needs to install the IBM Installation Manager (IIM) using non-graphical
interactive mode. To perform this operation, what should the administrator run?
A. imcl -c
B. imcl -s
C. imcl -install
D. imcl -updateAll
Answer: A

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NO.5 A remote host machine has been registered to a job manager as a target, and the IBM Installation
Manager has been installed on the host. How can an administrator install WebSphere Application Server
Network Deployment V8.0 on the remote host?
A. Use the job manager to schedule a "Manage offerings" job.
B. Schedule a "Distribute file" job to push the installation response file to the remote host.
C. Schedule a "Start application" job to launch the IBM Installation Manager on the remote host.
D. Use the Installation Factory to create a Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository on the
remote host.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A system administrator is creating a new WebSphere cell consisting of three dedicated
machines: ?web server ?deployment manager ?application server node To provide process level failover,
the administrator should create a cluster with:
A. no scaling
B. vertical scaling
C. horizontal scaling
D. horizontal and vertical scaling
Answer: B

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NO.7 Web clients are seeing error messages when they try to access a Java EE application. In order to
isolate the system component that may be causing the problem, the administrator decides to verify the
request flow from a web browser. In what order should the components be examined?
A. Web server, embedded HTTP server, web services engine
B. Web server, HTTP plug-in, embedded HTTP server, web container
C. Embedded HTTP server, web services engine, web container
D. Load balancer, web server, name server, embedded HTTP server, web container
Answer: B

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NO.8 A system administrator needs to create a new standalone WebSphere application server profile on
<machine_a>. All previous WebSphere installations have been on <machine_a>.
What should the administrator do to prevent a port conflict with this new server.?
A. Execute the pmt script from a remote machine.
B. Execute the Profile Management Tool from <machine_a>
C. Edit the server.xml file on <machine_a> to change ports.
D. Look for running processes on <machine_a> using port 9080
Answer: B

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NO.9 A system administrator needs to install the IBM Installation Manager for WebSphere Application Server
Network Deployment V8.0 using a non-root account. What step must the administrator take so that the
installation can be managed by two different non-root user accounts? Install the IBM Installation Manager:
A. in group mode.
B. in non-administrator mode.
C. using the configurator administrator role.
D. using a primary and secondary account.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A system administrator has successfully installed the WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment core product. The administrator then attempts to start server1, and it fails to start. On initial
inspection, the administrator finds that the profiles directory is empty. What should the administrator do
next?
A. Start the node agent for server1.
B. Inspect the SystemOut.log file of server1.
C. Run the Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
D. Run the WebSphere Customization Toolbox.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-642
Exam Name: IBM (ICS Social Software Sales Mastery Test v2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What are the five IT eras that are listed as transformational technologies in IT?
A. Hardware, Database, Software, Web 2.0, XML
B. Mainframe, Departmental, PCs, Internet, Social
C. Vacuum tube, Transistor, RAM, vRAM, Quantum Effect
D. Fortran, COBOL, Basic, C++, Java
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is another characteristic of a Social Business other than being engaging and nimble?
A. Technically strong
B. Has a strong presence in the Internet
C. Transparent
D. Informal
Answer: C

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NO.3 What design theme allows IBM Connections to be plugged in and accessed from a variety of different
software and mobile products?
A. Social everywhere
B. Idea center
C. Social forums
D. Blogs
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is happening to an organization s business network?
A. Changing from the ground up
B. Creating new sales potentials
C. Delivering on new promised Web 2.0 ideas
D. Related computer systems are only involved
Answer: C

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NO.5 Three key attributes to focus on for designing for reputation and risk management are: have a plan, be
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A. ensure that strategies are pushed down into the organization
B. limit access to social media site by employees and partners
C. do not respond to negative statements in social media sites
D. be transparent with two-way dialog
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-579
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Backup-Archive client must be set up on a TSM Server. This
client requires a new policy with three generations of backups for existing files, two generations of deleted
files, and the older generations to be kept for two months. This new client, called NEWCLT, will be part of
policy domain POLDOM. Which sequence of commands will accomplish this?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.2 A client node's file is bound to a management class that has an archive retention set to one year. The
file on that client is archived once a month for one year. At the end of one year how many copies of the
archived file exist in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 19
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.3 When running a backup of a client which has journaling enabled, which option for a manual backup
using the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager GUI performs a normal incremental backup without using the
journal?
A. Nojournal
B. Incremental
C. Incremental (complete)
D. Incremental (without journal)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command creates an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager policy set?
A. Define policyset my_domain my_policy
B. Create policyset my_domain my_policy
C. Activate policyset my_domain my_policy
D. Create new policyset my_domain my_policy
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are two benefits of an adaptive subfile backup? (Choose two.)
A. Large backup window
B. Limited connection time
C. Incremental forever backup
D. Longer Windows file retention
E. Reduced bandwidth requirements
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 All client data has been backed up to the primary pools. What is the recommended flow of data within
the storage hierarchy?
A. The storage pool data is backed up.
B. The storage pool data is backed up and then migrated and reclaimed.
C. The storage pool data is migrated to the next pool and then backed up.
D. The data stays in the pool, and the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database is backed up
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are three files that are preserved during the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Windows client upgrade?
(Choose three.)
A. dsm.opt
B. dsm.sys
C. tsm.options
D. dsmerror.log
E. dsmsched.log
F. dsmwebcl.out
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 Which protocol can be used to back up network attached storage file systems efficiently with IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.3?
A. Write Anywhere File Layout (WAFL)
B. Network Data Backup Protocol (NDBP)
C. Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
D. Network Attached Storage Backup Protocol (NASBP)
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer created a schedule and is checking the results. What is the correct sequence of a
successful incremental scheduled backup?
A. Future, pending, started, completed
B. Future, waiting, started, running, completed
C. Future, started, pending, running, completed
D. Future, pending, started, running, completed
Answer: D

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NO.10 The customer tells the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator that a Windows file server has
to be upgraded and therefore is put into maintenance. The manager wants to have the data immediately
available for restore in the event of problems. What is one of the actions of the TSM administrator?
A. move data
B. export node
C. copy activedata
D. prepare backupset
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which command grants access to another node from the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Server
administrative command line?
A. grant proxy node
B. set node access
C. grant node proxy
D. grant node access
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which statement about the Wheel of Life is true?
A. Expiration is a prerequisite for reclamation.
B. Migration frees wasted space on sequential volumes.
C. Backup storage pool moves the backup data to the next storage pool.
D. The daily administrative tasks should run in a specific order because it speeds up the whole
housekeeping process
Answer: A

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NO.13 IBM Tivoli Storage Manager deduplication is supported on which two resources? (Choose two.)
A. Client
B. LTO tape
C. Backup tape pool
D. Random access disk pool
E. Sequential access disk pool
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about a point-in-time restore? (Choose two.)
A. Point-in-time restores can be performed for image backups and the system state data for Windows.
B. Files which were deleted from the client workstation prior to the point-in-time specified will be restored.
C. Selective or incremental-by-date backups must be used to restore the state that existed at a specific
date and time.
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) restores file versions from the most recent backup before the
specified point-in-time date.
E. If the requested point-in-time restore date and time is prior to the oldest version maintained by TSM,
the object will be restored.
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which software must be installed to implement journal-based backups in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.3?
A. Server
B. Journaler
C. Server API
D. Backup-Archive client
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-605
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Automotive Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What does SPSS do for the customer?
A. It allows the customer to the ability to create models that understand how processes interact over time,
thus predicting problems and triggering an event to take action before the problem occurs.
B. It allows the customer to the ability to create databases that store sequential data, when used in
conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, predict database performance problems.
C. It allows the customer to the ability to create WebSphere Portal pages that display sequential data,
when used in conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, display database performance problems.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is one of the five major drivers for the automotive industry.?
A. A dependent ecosystem
B. An independent ecosystem
C. A closed ecosystem
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 What product does IBM have for the customer for planning and scheduling, order management, and
tracking and tracing?
A. ILOG
B. SPSS
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Rational Application Developer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-575
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Implementation )
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NO.1 A client has installed IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and is establishing a SAML
1.1 Single Sign-On (SSO) configuration with a service provider (SP). The client wants to provide
SP-initiated Federated SSO. How can this be accomplished?
A. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding identity
provider (IdP) login endpoint.
B. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters IDP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding IdP login
endpoint.
C. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, this can be simulated by using a link or
an HTTP 302 redirect to the IdP login endpoint with the query string parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and
TARGET to initiate the protocol.
D. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, and only an HTTP POST to the IdP can
be used to initiate the protocol, the SP must generate an HTTP 200 response containing a form with the
SP_PROVIDER_ID and target values which is self-posted to the IdP login endpoint.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When configuring WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
using the WebSEAL No ACLD profile, which configuration requirement(s) are relevant?
A. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured).
B. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured).
C. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
D. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which roles are typically defined in an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Single Sign-On
federation configuration?
A. Relying Party or Service Provider
B. Asserting Party or Service Provider
C. Identity Provider or Asserting Party
D. Identity Provider or Service Provider
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is always required when deploying the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 runtime and
management service?
A. WebSEAL
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.5 What does SAML stand for?
A. System Access Markup Language
B. Security Assertion Markup Language
C. Server Authenticated Markup Language
D. Secure Authentication Markup Language
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which partner vouches for the identity of a user in a Single Sign-On federation?
A. Relying party
B. Attribute party
C. Service provider
D. Identity provider
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is always required when creating an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) Single
Sign-On federation partner?
A. A signer certificate
B. A login protocol endpoint
C. A metadata file containing the partner definitions
D. A federation default or partner-specific mapping rule or function
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the default file name of the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator log?
A. tdi.log
B. ibmdi.log
C. ibmdisrv.log
D. ibmdirectoryintegrator.log
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is XSLT?
A. A concatenative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules to subexpressions, producing a new output
document.
B. A declarative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
C. An imperative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
D. A automata-based language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which
typically takes an XML source document and applies template rules to transition element states,
producing a new output document.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is true regarding event pages when creating a federation in IBM Tivoli Federated
Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. Event pages are tied to a protocol and not to a specific federation.
B. Event pages must be created (or copied from the defaults) and stored in the federation event directory.
C. Event pages can use the @FEDSTATUS@ macro to provide detailed Single Sign-On status
information to the user.
D. When creating event pages for a federation, it is important to append the federation name to the event
page filename so the TFIM runtime will use that instead of the default protocol event page.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What does this XSL code do?
<xsl:template match-'@* | node()">
<xsl:copy>
<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>
</xsl:copy>
</xsl:template>
A. It makes a copy of the template transforms on the input document.
B. It performs a series of transforms on a copy of the input document.
C. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all attributes, but not elements.
D. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all elements, but not attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Given IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 configured as an OpenID provider, what is a
correct statement regarding processing of attributes when using an IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
AssemblyLine as a mapping function?
A. Only requested attributes can be returned.
B. All attributes requested must be BASE64 encoded to ensure proper handling.
C. The AssemblyLine must assure that values for non-optional attributes are returned.
D. Requested attributes that have an empty value (not an empty string) must be removed and cannot be
returned.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer uses WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM) where IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) is configured to support Federal Information Processing
Standards (FIPS). When running the tfimcfg.jar tool this error is received:
FBTTAC1161 The SSL handshake failed. Retrying connection with certificate validation disabled
What must be done?
A. TFIM must be configured for SSL communication.
B. FIPS must be enabled on all TFIM WebSphere servers.
C. The TAM public certificates must be imported to the WebSphere trust store.
D. The tfimcfg.jar tool needs to run with the-sslfactory TLS argument.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Custom Java mapping functions must be deployed into which IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
V6.2.2 directory?
A. Plug-ins
B. Add-ins
C. Mappings
D. Extensions
Answer: A

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NO.15 A company wants to establish a Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) relationship with a partner identity
provider to allow partner administrator access. This company provides services for credit card processing.
What is the most secure choice for the FSSO protocol?
A. OpenID using Associate Mode
B. SAML 2.0 using HTTP Redirect/POST bindings, signed response, and signed assertion
C. SAML 1.1 using a Browser/POST profile, signed response and assertion, and a narrow assertion
validity window of only a few seconds
D. SAML 2.0 using an HTTP-Artifact binding, signed response and assertion, an encrypted assertion, and
a narrow assertion validity window of only a few seconds
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which HTTP status code is always issued by an identity provider using SAML 1.1 Browser/POST when
communicating with the Assertion Consumer Service?
A. 101
B. 200
C. 206
D. 302
Answer: B

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true regarding this SAML 1.1 flow diagram.? (Choose three.)
A. The HTTP request in Step 3 is a GET.
B. The assertion is sent with an HTTP 200 response in Step 2.
C. An artifact value is sent with an HTTP 302 response in Step 2.
D. This is a Browser/POST profile, so in Step 3 the assertion is sent to the Assertion Consumer Service
endpoint through an HTTP POST of an HTML form.
E. The HTTP response in Step 5 must be a 302 redirect based upon the resource requested and the
user's authorized access which is determined by the response in Step 4.
F. This is a Browser/Artifact profile, so the artifact received in Step 2 must be sent to the Artifact
Resolution Service in Step 3, and the assertion must be retrieved through a SOAP backchannel in Step 4.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.18 Which statement is true about the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Business Gateway?
A. Users can use several gateway protocols.
B. Users can access external Web services.
C. Users can create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
D. Users cannot create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is a trust service chain in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. It is a defined set of WS-Trust security tokens, which together form a proof of trust and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
B. It is a defined set of WS-Security trust tokens, which together form a proof of claim and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
C. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances, collectively executed in a specific order,
with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the WS-Trust model.
D. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances which are always executed in the specific
order required by the authentication flow, with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the
WS-Trust model.
Answer: C

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NO.20 When is IBM WebSphere Application Server required for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM)?
A. It is always required for TFIM.
B. When it is used as the point of contact.
C. When the Management Console GUI is used.
D. When Web Services Security Management is used
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N14
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services Technical Support Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 If problems occur during C&DS 5.0 repository configuration, which directory contains the log files to
review for errors?
A. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/install/log
B. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/log
C. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/config/log
D. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/debug/ConfigTool/log
Answer: B

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NO.2 If the 'Data Collection Execution Server' entry is not listed as a Type when attempting to define a new
Server Definition, which of the following steps would you recommend to a customer to resolve it?
A. Restart the application server for C&DS.
B. Verify the a connection to Data Collection can be established.
C. Verify the Data Collection Adapter is applied to C&DS.
D. Restart the database that houses the C&DS repository.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which section within Deployment Manager client would the user expand upon to see all folders and
objects that she is authorized to view?
A. Submitted Jobs
B. Content Repository
C. Resource Definitions
D. Repository Insight
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement correctly applies to the versioning capability of C&DS?
A. Version control and object version labels ensure the latest versions of assets are being used in
production processes.
B. Old object versions are automatically deleted to preserve storage.
C. An analyst can store a version of a file in development, and modify it until it is finalized and ready to be
moved into a production process.
D. Versioning refers to the ability to merge multiple object versions into one version.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer wants to automate the rerun of a C&DS job each time a Modeler stream in one of the
jobsteps is updated. How can this be achieved?
A. A message-based job schedule can run a job, based on a notification message sent at the update of
the Modeler stream.
B. This can only be achieved through a time based schedule if the Modeler stream is updated at fixed
times.
C. C&DS does not allow this kind of dependency
D. Define a "loop" connector between the Modeler jobstep and the job.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer created a parallel C&DS installation on a separate server, using a copy of the production
repository database. She can login to the repository, objects are being displayed, but most jobs fail to run
and cannot be edited. What could be a likely cause?
A. During the installation, the customer chose to Discard Existing Data data rather than Preserve Existing
Data.
B. Application server has not been started.
C. The save/restore process only migrated part of the content repository data.
D. Additional packages, existing in the production environment, have not been reinstalled after installation
of the parallel environment.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are the steps to start creating a Time-based schedule in the Content Explorer?
A. Right-click the job, choose ?Right-click the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
B. Setup a message domain, then right-click the job, choose ?Setup a message domain, then right-click
the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
C. Select the jobstep within the job, choose Schedule tab, enter scheduling details
D. Select the object (e.g. Modeler stream) to be executed by the job, choose File, New, Create
Time-Based job schedule
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator applied a patch to the C&DS installation and started the server. A user, using the
Deployment Manager windows client, is complaining that an issue that the patch should have fixed in the
client is not working. What should the administrator check to resolve this?
A. Ensure the user downloaded and manually installed the corresponding client patch.
B. Verify if the client license is still valid.
C. The only way to install a client update is to re-download the Deployment Manager client from the server.
Make sure that this has been done.
D. Ensure the user restarted the Deployment Manager Windows client, after having received a version
update message.
Answer: D

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NO.9 R&D fixed an issue with Modeler integration in Deployment Manager client. A Fix Pack has been
released. For which product and which fix should the customer look on Fix Central?
A. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Server
B. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Adapter
C. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Server
D. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Adapter
Answer: D

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NO.10 If the keystore file that is generated during the C&DS installation is inadvertently deleted from the
system, which of the following steps must be performed to recover.?
A. Execute the genkey utility within the <C&DS_Install>\bin directory.
B. Enable encryption within the Tools => Security menu.
C. Manually create a new keystore file in the expected location.
D. C&DS will need to be reinstalled.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M605
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Automotive Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What does SPSS do for the customer?
A. It allows the customer to the ability to create models that understand how processes interact over time,
thus predicting problems and triggering an event to take action before the problem occurs.
B. It allows the customer to the ability to create databases that store sequential data, when used in
conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, predict database performance problems.
C. It allows the customer to the ability to create WebSphere Portal pages that display sequential data,
when used in conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, display database performance problems.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the business value of process composition?
A. It combines real-time data storage techniques that will help reduce a customers time to market delivery
schedule.
B. It focuses the real value of integrated systems into the day-to-day operational complexities of the
manufacturing line.
C. It integrates real-time, event-driven factory floor with the supply chain to improve operational
performance, asset utilization, and inventory management.
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is one of the five major drivers for the automotive industry?
A. A dependent ecosystem
B. An independent ecosystem
C. A closed ecosystem
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which IBM product takes care of partner B2B in the application framework?
A. Maximo
B. COGNOS
C. SPSS
D. WPG
Answer: A

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NO.5 What product does IBM have for the customer for planning and scheduling, order management, and
tracking and tracing?
A. ILOG
B. SPSS
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Rational Application Developer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-821
Exam Name: IBM (Collaborative Lifecycle Management)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which three sources can CLM use for user authentication? (Choose three.)
A. browser
B. LDAP
C. Tomcat User Registry
D. non-LDAP external registry services
E. database server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 What are three supported CLM clients? (Choose three.)
A. Eclipse
B. Oracle Netbeans
C. Microsoft Visual Studio
D. Borland Delphi
E. web browser
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Which statement is NOT true about CLM providing linkages between applications?
A. Test cases can be linked to work items.
B. Test cases can be linked to requirements.
C. Work items can be linked to test plans.
D. Work items can be linked to test results.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the Operational Data Store (ODS) in Rational Reporting?
A. the process of collecting data from one or more source, cleansing and transforming it, and then
loading it into a database
B. a standard application programming interface for accessing data in both relational and
non-relational databases
C. a repository that stores copies of a subset of operational data from registered applications
D. the database that contains the data needed to operate reports, such as report specifications and
published reports
Answer: C

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NO.5 How does an administrator verify the database status for the Jazz Team Server?
A. navigate to the administrative page (https://<your server>:9443 /jts/admin)
B. open the Eclipse version of RTC and verify the 'server status' viewlet
C. check the server status light for verification of an active database
D. view the database schema by opening the DB2 or Oracle control center via the desktop shortcut
Answer: A

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NO.6 For which two purposes does CLM use absolute URIs? (Choose two.)
A. to locate clients attached to the server
B. to act as a stable resource identification for all applications
C. to act as a proxy for other systems
D. to permit consistent web access to stored artifacts
E. to reduce the size of any URL referencing stored artifacts
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 What limitation is inherited by choosing Apache Derby as the database for the Jazz Team
Server?
A. CLM integrations between RRC and RQM will not work.
B. The Eclipse client for RTC cannot be used.
C. The web client for RTC cannot be used.
D. The deployment will be limited to ten total users.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement BEST describes the architecture of Rational Reporting for Development
Intelligence (RRDI)?
A. The report server can only create reports related to Quality Management data.
B. The content store server extracts, transforms, and loads data into a data warehouse.
C. The report server uses data collected in the data warehouse to create reports.
D. The report server must be connected to Rational Publishing Engine to create reports.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are three limitations when each CLM application has its own Jazz Team Server (JTS)?
(Choose three.)
A. Applications cannot be consolidated to point to single JTS later on.
B. The same LDAP server cannot be used for each JTS.
C. Project areas cannot be managed with the Lifecycle Project Administration application.
D. Each application cannot be run on its own application server.
E. A client access license cannot be used on multiple servers.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 Which two build engines is Rational Team Concert's Jazz build engine designed to work with?
(Choose two.)
A. Apache Gump
B. Hudson
C. CruiseControl
D. Bamboo
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 000-959
Exam Name: IBM (Enterprise Storage Sales V3)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A customer with storage arrays from a number of vendors is looking at EMC and IBM storage
management tools. What should the sales specialist discuss with this customer?
A. EMC Unisphere manages IBM and EMC storage arrays
B. EMC can deploy a single solution to manage HDS and EMC
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center can only manage the IBM storage arrays
D. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center can manage SMI-S compliant storage from a single
management console
Answer: D

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NO.2 A sales specialist is discussing FO SAN with a customer, who says that it is not the right
solution
for the company’s needs. The customer has another solution in mind but has forgotten the exact
name of it, saying only that it has something to do with the LAN.
Which term is the customer most likely trying to articulate?
A. SAS
B. WAN
C. SATA
D. SCSI
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is one clear advantage of IBM’s TS3500 Tape Library over Oracle’s SL-8500 Library?
A. FC0E connectivity
B. Higher number of robots
C. Modularity of storage units
D. Capability for handling mixed media
Answer: C

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6. A customer has a number of non-IBM storage arrays, which are capable of provisioning using
only
traditional RAID volumes. Over-allocation of storage is an issue on some arrays and not on others.
In order to balance storage use across the arrays, the customer wishes to virtualize the
environment.
Which advantage would IBM SAN Volume Controller provide over EMC VPLEX?
A. SAN Volume Controller can provide thin provisioned volumes to reduce capacity regardless of
array capability.
B. SAN Volume Controller can provide Real-time Compression to reduce capacity if the array
supports compression.
C. SAN Volume Controller can provide block-level deduplication to reduce capacity regardless of
array capability.
D. SAN Volume Controller can provide thin provisioned volumes to reduce capacity if the array
supports thin provisioning.
Answer: A

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7. A customer tells the sales specialist that the cost for high performance storage is too
expensive,
especially for data that is infrequently accessed.
Which technology allows them to assign types of data to different types of storage media in order
to reduce costs?
A. Data archival
B. Storage tiering
C. Thin provisioning
D. Storage virtualization
Answer: B

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8. A company wants additional storage for their database system and has been looking at HP
competitive disk proposals as a solution. When discussing IBM’s solutions with the company’s
010, the sales specialist learns that the company is directly attaching the HP disk and is buying
fewer, larger capacity drives.
Based on this information, which financial justification is this customer using?
A. Price/performance
B. Return on investment
C. Total cost of ownership
D. Total cost of acquisition
Answer: D

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9. A sales specialist discusses system acquisition requirements with a company’s OFO, who
states,
“our final evaluation will be based on hard dollars, but l still want to see what kind of value I’m
getting with the solution we choose.”
How is this customer performing the purchasing analysis?
A. TOA
B. TCO
C. NPV
D. ROI
Answer: D

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10. The PRIMARY purpose of the SAN Volume Controller is to provide which function?
A. Increased performance
B. Storage virtualization
C. Merging multiple LANs and SANs into one
D. Replication within a single storage array (homogeneous)
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer is looking for a small VTL that comes standard with deduplication as well as with
atleast4 TB of usable capacity which can grow to 20 TB.
Which IBM solution should be proposed to this customer?
A. TS7610
B. TS7680
C. T37650
D. TS7650G
Answer: C

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NO.5 A mainframe customer who utilizes 3490 tape is interested in reducing their need for tape and
would like to compare offerings from IBM and Oracle.
Which competitive product from Oracle should the specialist gather information on?
A. VSM
B. VSP
C. VPLEX
D. Bus-Tech
Answer: A

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