2013年6月29日星期六

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Exam Code: 000-M236

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Sales Mastery Test v3)

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NO.1 Which feature does TSM (Tivoli Storage Manager) NOT provide.?
A. Backup and Recovery
B. Device mapping
C. Archive and Retrieve
D. HSM (Hierarchical Storage Manager)
E. Content management
Answer: E

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NO.2 ° N ea r I ns t an t R ecove r ¡± pr o vi de s w hi c h o f t h e fo l l o w i ng
A. The ability to restore directly from tape.
B. The ability to restore directly from disk.
C. The ability to mount the tape directly to the host.
D. The ability to mount the disk directly to the host.
Answer: A

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NO.3 SVC (SAN Volume Controller) can provide which of the following?
A. Can provision storage but has to take the client down to do it.
B. Can increase performance by using the EMC pass through driver.
C. Reduce Storage costs.
D. Apply Time Finder to different vendors disk sub-systems.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-819

Exam Name: IBM (Rational Application Developer V8 Associate )

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NO.1 A developer needs to debug the application RAD8EJBWeb containing redbank.jsp on the server using
Rational Application Developer. What can be done to accomplish this task?
A. right-click redbank.jsp and select Debug As -> Debug on Server
B. create a software analyzer configuration and run it
C. right-click redbank.jsp and select Profile As -> Profile on Server
D. Open the Debug perspective as it automatically starts a debug session
Answer: A

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NO.2 A developer needs to check the state of one of the JSF Managed Beans when an application is paused.
Although all Managed Beans (and other scoped objects) can be found by looking at the FacesContext
object available in the Variables view, finding the objects this way can be difficult and time consuming.
What is the simplest way for a developer to check the state of scoped objects and view attributes?
A. create matches for scoped objects and view attributes and view the values at the Expression window
B. print the report of the scoped objects and view attributes, then filter the scoped object out of the list
C. execute the pauseTime.bat under the install_root/eclipse/plug-ins/scopedValue, which will print the
values of the scoped objects and view attributes
D. enable the runtime JVMPI values for the variables
Answer: A

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NO.3 A development team is starting a new web application project and building a set of servlets for the first
time. Which two methods can be used to create an initial set of servlets for the project? (Choose two.)
A. take an existing Java class and select the Refactor to servlet option and follow the wizard screens to
configure the project and servlet parameters
B. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet in a Java project and add the project to the web
project as a Java utility project
C. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" entry to the web application
deployment descriptor
D. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" annotation
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Web 2.0 technologies improve the user interface of web-based applications and RAD8 provides support
for several of these technologies. Which two technologies supported by RAD8 are provided to make Web
2.0 easier? (Choose two.)
A. Dojo Javascript library
B. Web Security Editor
C. Ajax Proxy
D. Dynamic Page Template support (Tiles)
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What is the annotation for local interface?
A. @local
B. @localInterface
C. @Interface
D. @ejbLocal
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is true about displaying perspectives in a Rational Application Developer workbench
window?
A. Multiple perspectives can be open, but you can interact with only one in each workbench window.
B. Perspectives can be arranged and viewed simultaneously in the workbench.
C. Perspectives can be tiled into a single view.
D. A single perspective per workbench can be open.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is an example of an application component type?
A. Applet
B. Web Module
C. Resource Adapter
D. Deployment Descriptor
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two are Session Bean interfaces.? (Choose two.)
A. local interface
B. remote interface
C. provider interface
D. external interface
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 A developer needs to debug an application. What can the developer do to get the debug perspective on
Rational Application Developer?
A. select Window -> Open Perspective -> (Other) -> Debug
B. select Window -> New Perspective -> Open -> Debug
C. select Window -> Debug
D. select Window -> Application -> Open -> Debug
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M241

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Enterprise Marketing Management Sales Mastery Test v1 )

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NO.1 What is the value proposition of the Unica Leads product offering?
A. To deliver quality leads in a timely manner.
B. To create new market channels through leads generation.
C. To offer new product offerings through channel marketing.
D. To sustain existing channels through demand generation.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is one of the main competitors for IBM ¯ s E MM o ff e ri ngs i n t he m a r ke t p l ace?
A. Teradata
B. IndustryTrends
C. OpenAnalytics
D. NetTrends
Answer: A

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NO.3 How is the Coremetrics Software as a Service (SaaS) product used in IBM ¯ s MM product lineup?
A. It is used as a deployment model to optimize online marketing.
B. It is used as a recovery mode to recover from online disasters.
C. It is used as a replication server to replicate marketing information.
D. It is used as a tracking product for tracking customer transactions.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-581

Exam Name: IBM (IBM FileNet Content Manager V5.1)

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NO.1 Component Manager hosts a component that can be used to execute certain content-related
operations against the Content Engine. What is this component called?
A. Event action.
B. CEOperations.
C. Integration Tier.
D. Web Application Toolkit.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which items are associated with a Content Engine site?
A. Marking sets, storage areas and virtual servers.
B. Content cache areas, add-ons and object stores.
C. Object stores, storage areas and fixed content devices.
D. Storage areas, content cache areas and virtual servers.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the Composite Platform Installation Tool?
A. A tool that allows you to install P8 components only.
B. A tool that allows you to install P8 on multiple servers.
C. A tool that allows you to install P8 components remotely.
D. A tool that allows you to install P8 components on a single server, including the middleware
applications such as the database and web application server software.
Answer: D

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NO.4 For documents in which a date based property is a primary identifier, which type of partitioning will
reduce query retrieval time?
A. Date partitioning.
B. Index partitioning.
C. Interval partitioning.
D. Collection partitioning.
Answer: D

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NO.5 FileNet Configuration Manager offers only one JDBC connection for an object store by default. What
are the two ways of adding additional JDBC connections for object stores. (choose two.)
A. It is not possible to create multiple JDBC data source.
B. Configure a new JDBC data source using the application server console.
C. Create a new profile, for the JDBC data source in FileNet Configuration Manager .
D. Add New Task "Configure Object Store JDBC Data Sources" in FileNet Configuration Manager.
E. The same JDBC data source will work for the preference object store. No need to create a new one.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What are the two types of transport protocols supported by the Content Engine? (choose two.)
A. .NET
B. Enterprise Java Beans (EJB)
C. Java 2 Enterprise Edition (J2EE)
D. Content Engine Web Services (CEWS)
E. Representational State Transfer (REST)
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 In a High Availability environment for Content Engine, how should IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager be
connected to the Content Engine server?
A. Using Enterprise JavaBeans (EJB) protocol for a specific node.
B. Using WSI protocol for multiple nodes (e.g. load-balancer URL).
C. Using Web Service Interoperability (WSI) protocol for a specific node.
D. Using EJB protocol for multiple nodes (e.g. corbaloc URL for WebSphere).
Answer: C

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NO.8 Consider the following distributed P8 configuration:
All object stores contain file storage areas and are configured for content based retrieval (CBR). A
complete offline backup of the system runs daily at 10 PM. If server A crashes at 2 PM and must be
replaced, how should the administrator recover the system?
A. Restore all files for server A from backup.
B. Restore all files for server A from backup and re-index the object stores.
C. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the database files to server C.
D. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the file storage files to the NAS device.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What two services does the Content Engine supply? (choose two.)
A. Content storage.
B. Workflow management.
C. Life cycle management.
D. Thin client user front end.
E. User and group management.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 For which of the following components is it required to set session affinity (sticky session) on a load
balancer?
A. Content Engine.
B. Process Engine.
C. Application Engine.
D. Content Search Engine/Server.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The Content Engine bootstrap account (ce_bootstrap_admin) is stored in the CEMPBoot.properties
file that is archived in the Content Engine EAR file. What type of account should you use for the
ce_bootstrap_admin?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.
Answer: B

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NO.12 How can you start and stop P8 components?
A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager.
B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix.
C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows.
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Workplace XT hosts and manages a component that enables the Process Engine to make calls on
external components.
What is this component called?
A. PEOperations
B. Process Adaptor
C. Component Manager
D. Process Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.14 In which two scenarios should the Content Consistency Checker be used? (choose two.)
A. Content Engine is performing slow.
B. If search templates are not working.
C. After restoring a storage area from backup media.
D. To troubleshoot Fixed Content Device connectivity.
E. If users are unable to view the content of a document when the content is stored in a file storage area,
even when they have view-content permissions on the document.
Answer: C,E

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NO.15 Content Search Services Client files are installed on which of the following P8 servers?
A. Content Engine.
B. Process Engine.
C. Application Engine.
D. Legacy Content Search Engine.
Answer: A

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NO.16 The Process Engine service user (pe_service_user) is used by the Process Engine to connect to the
Content Engine. What type of account should you create for the pe_service_user?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.
Answer: B

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NO.17 When using Workplace XT and a user is out of the office (e.g., vacation), where can they specify an
alternate person to receive their Process Engine work items.?
A. Site Preferences.
B. Process Configuration Console.
C. Task Settings under User Preferences.
D. General Settings under User Preferences.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is NOT reported to IBM FileNet Dashboard?
A. Remote procedure call counts and durations.
B. Number of documents stored in the Content Engine.
C. System specifications, operating system version, and product version.
D. Real-time graphing of performance data, including CPU load and memory utilization.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following actions can be performed within the query builder?
A. Execute Java code.
B. Search across object stores.
C. Perform content-based retrieval.
D. Save searches in an object store.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which tool is used to create a connection point to an existing Process Engine isolated region?
A. Workplace XT.
B. Process Administrator.
C. FileNet Enterprise Manager.
D. Process Configuration Console.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M237

Exam Name: IBM (IBM B2B Integration-Network-Managed File Transfer Sales Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 The IBM Sterling Collaboration Network archives data for how long at no additional charge?
A. 3 days
B. 35 days
C. 45 days
D. 15 days
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the visibility and control characteristics of IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. SQL queries are used to directly access the message database.
B. Long term storage and archiving.
C. Configurable dashboards, EDI / B2B tracking and reporting.
D. Links directly to IBM WebSphere Business Monitor.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What capabilities are required to optimize your dynamic business network?
A. B2B communications
B. Process automation
C. Community enablement
D. Visibility
E. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the strategic foundation platform for IBM's B2B software solutions?
A. Connect:Direct
B. WebSphere Transformation Extender
C. IBM Sterling B2B Integrator
D. IBM Sterling Collaboration Network
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a ° m us t hav ¡± capa b ili ty fo r cu st om ers t h a t are a t t em p t i n g to s ol v e t h e i
data movement challenges?
A. Pass tougher security audits.
B. Double their transfer capacity without increasing staff.
C. Cut new connection cycle time in half.
D. Remove the FTP risk.
E. All are ° m us t hav ¡± capa b ilit i e s
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are the 3 primary types of data movement?
A. B2B, A2A, and Batch
B. Batch, B2B, and E-mail
C. Batch, B2B, and Unmanaged
D. B2B, E-mail, and FTP
Answer: C

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NO.7 In a customer success story, Kroger reports that they transfer over _______ of data per day using
IBM/Sterling managed file transfer solutions.
A. 500 GB
B. 1 TB
C. 5 TB
D. 10 TB
Answer: B

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NO.8 What type of visibility is available in IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. Configurable dashboards and reports.
B. Detailed visibility of end-to-end business processes.
C. EDI tracking.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are some tangible business benefits that customers achieve from using Sterling B2B Integrator.?
A. Rapidly develop new sales channels.
B. Cut B2B development and implementation time by up to 75%.
C. Improve visibility of inventory and shipment status across the supply chain.
D. On board smaller partners at minimal cost.
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.10 All of the top_____ banks in the world depend upon IBM Sterling Managed File Transfer to secure their
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A. 5
B. 10
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M95

Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere QualityStage Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 What is DataStage/Quality Stage Administrator client used for?
A. Setting up project properties.
B. Scheduling jobs to execute.
C. Compiling all the jobs at once.
D. Exporting log messages for a job.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following rules will retain FIELD1 with the longest last name and TITLE equals to "MR"?
A. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))<= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND c.TITLE="MR"
B. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME")) AND c.TITLE="MR"
C. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND b.TITLE="MR"
D. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND c.TITLE="MR"
Answer: D

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NO.3 Investigation of data using QualityStage is for _____________________
A. transforming the data from one data type to another.
B. discovering the actual values of missing data.
C. verifying the reliability of the data in the fields to be used as matching criteria.
D. identifying all the data sources for data consolidation.
Answer: C

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NO.4 In Standardization Rule Sets, classification table contains what?
A. Field name, data type, and position in record.
B. Class, token, and standard form.
C. Pattern of tokens, actions to execute, and the logic.
D. Token, standard form, class, and override rules.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of Critical Fields.?
A. Critical Fields are used to identify fields that must agree in order for records to be linked.
B. Critical Fields do not have to match exactly.
C. Only critical fields of a record are used to calculate the composite weights of the record.
D. Critical Fields are fields with missing values.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N09

Exam Name: IBM (IBM LotusLive Technical Sales Mastery Test v2 )

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NO.1 What are the default settings for newly created Communities.?
A. All new Communities will be created with the Files widget to upload and share files with the community.
B. All new Communities will have customized templates to create sub-communities.
C. All new Communities will be created with nested community features.
D. Communities do not have default settings because it is blank and owner must create the settings.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Bob wants to share a file with Alice. Bob and Alice both have LotusLive accounts but work for different
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A. Download a decrypted copy of the file in LotusLive and email it to Alice.
B. Share the file publicly in LotusLive and email Alice the link.
C. Get connected with Alice via LotusLive so she can see the files.
D. Share the file directly in LotusLive with Alice making sure she is listed as a reader.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Cameron wants to give his customers access to his LotusLive environment. What is required to add
users to his LotusLive organization?
A. To add user, Cameron must have at least User Account Assistant privileges.
B. To add users, Cameron must have administrator privileges.
C. To add users, Cameron must have at least manager rights to his community.
D. To add users, Cameron must have creator s role which is assigned when account is created.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-570

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Implemenation )

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NO.1 An asset is created and measurement points are associated. Which IBM Maximo Asset Management
V7.5 application sets Upper Limit and Lower Limit Job Plans?
A. Meters
B. Assets
C. Condition Monitoring
D. Work Order Tracking
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does the Enable Repair Facilities Organization option allow?
A. Creating a work order in a site different from the site of the asset on that work order
B. Reserving items from one site to use at another site on an emergency maintenance work order
C. Moving an asset from one location to another location on an emergency maintenance work order
D. Creating a preventive maintenance (PM) record in a site different from the site of the asset on that PM
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the purpose of commodity codes?
A. To group like items for issue
B. To group like items for purchasing
C. To group like items for classification
D. To group like items for asset bill of material
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which property is used to define the directory used when importing data using the Integration
Framework?
A. Mxe.int.dir
B. Mxe.int.localdir
C. Mxe.int.globaldir
D. Mxe.int.accessdir
Answer: C

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NO.5 After fully receiving a shipment it is discovered that the item or tool has been received incorrectly. How
can a receipt be reversed from the Shipment Receiving application?
A. Find the shipment receipt, change the status to VOID from the Select Action menu, click Save
B. Find the shipment receipt, click the checkbox Void Receipt for each line to be reversed, click Save
C. Find the shipment receipt, click the button Select Receipt to Void, select each line to be voided, click
OK
D. Find the shipment receipt, click the button Select Records to Void, select each line to be voided, click
OK
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two uses for the Assignment Manager application? (Choose two.)
A. To dispatch labor and schedule work for an organization
B. To create and manage work orders for assets and locations
C. To report labor transactions by labor, by vendor/contract, by work order, or by ticket
D. To specify which organizations and sites can use the information that is on the job plan and its tasks
E. To view the requirements that were created from the work plan as well as the unplanned work on a
work order
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which function is performed in the Quick Reporting application?
A. Create failure code hierarchies
B. Create job plans and safety plans
C. Create preventive maintenance schedules
D. Report actual labor, materials, and tools used in the work
Answer: D

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NO.8 If the Integrity Checker utility tool reports that some groups have no privileges in the Maximo security
tables, how could this be resolved?
A. Run the integrity checker in repair mode
B. Run the integrity checker in backup mode
C. Create a new Maximo Security group for the Maximo security tables and run the Integrity Checker
utility again
D. Create a new security group with all grants on the Maximo security tables and run the Integrity Checker
utility again
Answer: A

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NO.9 When creating a purchase request line by using the Select Spare Parts button, refined search is
allowed by specifying at least one of which two data fields? (Choose two.)
A. Site ID
B. Description
C. Item Number
D. Asset Number
E. Organization ID
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which statement is true to review the content of a scheduled report?
A. Use the Report Administration application to view and select from a list of report outputs
B. Use the Report Administration application to choose the correct report and then click the View button
C. Use the URL from the link supplied in the e-mail to access a PDF file served up directly by the HTTP
server
D. Access the URL from the link supplied in the e-mail and then log into Maximo and select the Download
Content button
Answer: D

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NO.11 What does an active workflow process define?
A. The flow of work in Application Designer
B. The process to add an attribute to an application
C. The different work to be performed by the lead craft
D. The different paths that a record can take as it moves through a business process
Answer: C

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NO.12 What comprises a failure code?
A. Failure, affect, fix
B. Issue, reason, resolution
C. Problem, cause, remedy
D. Situation, impact, solution
Answer: D

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NO.13 A company has deployed IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 (Maximo) to manage the company
assets and the purchasing process. The company's purchasing process does not require an approved
purchase request (PR) in order to generate a new purchase order (PO) but the buyer reported this
problem when trying to create a new PO from an unapproved PR:
Where can this validation be turned off in Maximo?
A. Organizations application
B. Purchase Orders application
C. System Properties application
D. Database Configuration application
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer has an escalation that requires notifications to go to both Marie Smith and her supervisor
Lee Tsumi. How can both users be included as recipients on a communication template?
A. Create a role for both Marie and Lee
B. Create a Person Group with Marie as the primary
C. Add both e-mail addresses on the Recipients tab
D. Include both user e-mails in the Recipient field separated by a colon
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the definition of a work package?
A. It groups existing work orders under a new parent work order.
B. It is a preventive maintenance work order hierarchy that has been created from a route.
C. It is a work order linked to all the originating services requests for the work order and is created from
the Related Records tab.
D. It is a group of work orders in Waiting to be Scheduled status that are the responsibility of one person
and is created in the Assignment Manager application.
Answer: A

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NO.16 In the Receiving application, what does the Quantity Accepted field indicate?
A. The quantity of items that passed inspection
B. The quantity of items accepted for inspection
C. The quantity of items that received inspection
D. The quantity of items that are awaiting inspection
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which standard relationship is the container relationship for assets?
A. BACKUPS
B. INCLUDES
C. CONNECTS
D. INTERSECTS
Answer: B

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NO.18 A forecast for a preventive maintenance record has been generated. How can the forecast date be
adjusted from the Preventive Maintenance application?
A. From the Forecast tab, select a forecast row, enter a value in the New Date field, click Save
B. From the Select Action menu, select Generate Forecast, enter a value in the Forecast Days field, click
OK
C. From the Frequency tab, select the Time Based Frequency tab, enter a value in the Frequency field,
click Save
D. From the Frequency tab, select the Time Based Frequency tab, enter a value in the Extended Date
field, click Save
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which IBM Maximo Asset Management location status is necessary to associate a location with a
system.?
A. Active
B. Ready
C. Operating
D. Decommissioned
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which method is used to view labor hours, costs, and material costs for a particular work order?
A. from the Work Order Tracking application, select the Cost tab
B. from the Work Order Tracking application, go to the Select Action menu and select View > Costs
C. from the Actuals tab of Work Order Tracking application, download and summarize each of the table
windows for Labor, Materials. Services, and Tools
D. navigate to the Cost Management application, query for the work order in question to view estimated
and actual hours and costs for labor in addition to estimated and actual costs for materials and service
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-648

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational IT Sales Mastery Test v2 )

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NO.1 What is a key differentiator of the Rational Deployment Planning and Automation solution compared to
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A. A focus on continuous integration deployment automation.
B. Its strategy is to automate logic that the customer has already written.
C. It relies on integrating a mix of Rational and open-source technologies.
D. It is a true broad development-to-operations solution.
Answer: A

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A. It provides a run time monitor of web applications to prevent unwanted intrusions.
B. It enables organizations to embed application security testing throughout the development life cycle to
help increase visibility and control while employing a risk mitigation strategy.
C. It provides authentication and identification services to ensure that only authorized users can access
mission critical applications.
D. It analyzes network traffic to identify trojan horses, malware, etc.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of these challenges exist most often in Software Development and Delivery?
A. Language, Relational, Geographic
B. Organizational, Cultural, Systemic
C. Environmental, Infrastructure, Educational
D. Geographic, Organizational and Infrastructure
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N03

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Selling Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 What is NOT a feature of WebSphere Commerce contracts.?
A. Customer organization modeling.
B. Custom Catalog
C. Product pricing
D. Business Policies
Answer: A

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NO.2 Gift Center can provide benefits to retailers. Which one of the following statement is NOT a benefit of
using Gift Center?
A. Improve customer satisfaction.
B. Increase customer reach.
C. Increase sales volume.
D. Give more discounts to customers.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do you check if Gift Center is already enabled at a WebSphere Commerce installation?
A. Run versionInfo.sh
B. Check database table SITE
C. Check properties/version folder
D. Check xml/config folder
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-642

Exam Name: IBM (ICS Social Software Sales Mastery Test v2)

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NO.1 What is another characteristic of a Social Business other than being engaging and nimble?
A. Technically strong
B. Has a strong presence in the Internet
C. Transparent
D. Informal
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is happening to an organization s business network?
A. Changing from the ground up
B. Creating new sales potentials
C. Delivering on new promised Web 2.0 ideas
D. Related computer systems are only involved
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the five IT eras that are listed as transformational technologies in IT?
A. Hardware, Database, Software, Web 2.0, XML
B. Mainframe, Departmental, PCs, Internet, Social
C. Vacuum tube, Transistor, RAM, vRAM, Quantum Effect
D. Fortran, COBOL, Basic, C++, Java
Answer: B

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NO.4 What design theme allows IBM Connections to be plugged in and accessed from a variety of different
software and mobile products?
A. Social everywhere
B. Idea center
C. Social forums
D. Blogs
Answer: A

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NO.5 Three key attributes to focus on for designing for reputation and risk management are: have a plan, be
proactive and fast, and __________________.
A. ensure that strategies are pushed down into the organization
B. limit access to social media site by employees and partners
C. do not respond to negative statements in social media sites
D. be transparent with two-way dialog
Answer: A

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2013年6月28日星期五

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Exam Code: 3303

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Implementation and Maintenance Exam)

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NO.1 In Avaya Proactive Contact 5.0, which application can be used to enable/disable the Agent Job list
feature?
A. Agent Application
B. Command User Interface (System Telnet)
C. Analyst
D. Editor
Answer: B

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NO.2 A system operator opens a Job Status view in the Avaya Proactive Contact Monitor and notices that
the status for job EXP100 is shown as Active, but the character-based Job Monitor no longer shows the
job as running. The system operator calls support and asks for an explanation.
Which three actions would you perform to begin troubleshooting the problem? (Choose three.)
A. Log on to the dialer and run check_db and check_mts.
B. Instruct the supervisor on how to generate debugging data in the cd.log file and ask the supervisor to
send you the output for analysis.
C. Tell the supervisor how to locate her personal directory and how to delete all the .cmv files foundthere.
D. Log on to the dialer and run sqlplus, and then enter the following query: SQL> select * from
mo_last_status;
E. Log on to the dialer and run sqlplus, and then enter the following query: SQL> select * from dialerdef;
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 On the Avaya Proactive Contact Analyst application, which section shows you Non-Contact and Error
summary reports?
A. Agent
B. Job
C. Administrative
D. Agent Monthly
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does db_mgr script do?
A. It stops and starts the database
B. It copies calling lists to *.old.
C. It rolls up the daily data into monthly statistics.
D. It removes all old and outdated files from the system.
E. It runs a backup of the database to DVD.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A business has a three dialer pod (one primary and two secondary) and ten supervisor workstations.
How many Java processes should be running while checking mid-tier services (check_mts)?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 10
D. 13
E. 14
Answer: A

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NO.6 A system is logging errors on a porter process during every reboot/restart of Proactive Contact. Which
two parameters, if mismatched, would cause this? (Choose two.)
A. PORTSinmaster, cfg
B. OPERATORS in master, cfg
C. MAXHIDSLOTS in master, cfg
D. H specified ports configuredindgswitch.cfg
E. N specified ports configured in dgswitch.cfg
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 A system supervisor uses Editor to create a new completion code for use in a Job that will run later in
the day. The job seems to start up without any problem, but when the supervisor looks at Monitor's Job
Completion Code view, no agents are releasing calls using the new code.
Which two Issues would contribute to this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The agents did not get the email describing the new completion code and the conditions for Itsuse.
B. The completion code changes are in the pending state and won't be available to agents until after the
next dialing application restart.
C. The Proactive Contact Agent application has not been updated to use the new completion code.
D. Monitor is not working properly. There should be at least a few calls with the new completion code.
E. The system supervisor forgot to add the new completion code to the agent keys file associated with the
job.
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 A system supervisor calls support to report that when Job Agent view in Monitor is used, agents that are
on break cannot be seen.
What is the reason for this happening?
A. An agent who is on break is not really on a job. The supervisor should see that the agent is still on the
system by looking at a Dialer Agent view Instead.
B. The agents are exiting out of the Proactive Contact Agent (PC Agent) application rather than using the
"Go On Break" option in the PC Agent menu.
C. Display of agents who have used the "Go On Break" function of PC Agent application is not supported
in Monitor.
D. Monitor may not be configured to display agents who are on break.
E. An agent who has used the "Go On Break" function Is shown as "Off Job" in Monitor.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three should you verify if a network connection error is suspected between the Avaya Proactive
Contact 5.X server and the PG230RM? (Choose three.)
A. Run lanscan and landiag and look for collisions and other errors on the internal network (lan0).
B. Verify the name (switch1) and IP address for the PG230RM matches between the /etc/hosts onthe
AvayaProactiveContact server and in the Network Configuration page on the PG230RM (under the
Current Internet Address).
C. Verify that SWITCHTYPE is set to DIGITAL in /opt/avaya/pds/etc/master.cfg on the Avaya Proactive
Contact server.
D. Verify you have an active flashing LED light on the front of the ENBC card indicating LAN activity.
E. Verify that there are four swif_dg processes running on the Avaya Proactive Contact server.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 A Job is running on Avaya Proactive Contact 5.0 and the system operator notices that not enough
records are selected. The operator wants to change selection criteria to select more records and re-run
the call selection without stopping the job.
How can this be achieved?
A. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Monitor.
B. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Editor.
C. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Command User Interface (CUI).
D. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Analyst.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A system operator needs to see failed login attempts on the Avaya Proactive Contact 5.X dialer. Which
login type must be used to see these failed attempts?
A. sysadm
B. system
C. auditor
D. reporter
Answer: C

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NO.12 What should the crontab of a secondary dialer have?
A. pds_maintenance
B. pds_maintenance and db_rnaintenance
C. pds_maintenance and mts_maintenance
D. pds_maintenance, mts_maintenance and db_mainlenance
Answer: B

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NO.13 To configure the opt-out feature for a virtual job, you need to select the check-box against "Should 'opt
outs' be enabled". This enables other configuration parameters for this feature.
Which three configuration parameters are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Opt-out Digit: 5
B. When an opt-out happens, transfer to .. : Transfer to a VDN
C. Message to be played when opt-out fails : 1
D. When opt-out happens, transfer to : Transfer to an outbound job
E. Opt out Digit: #
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 A system operator reports that agents are randomly being disconnected from Proactive Contact Agent.
You have reviewed the available data and it is inconclusive. Since the problem is intermittent, you need to
set up the dialer so that it will gather the data you need in the future.
Assuming that the current date is February 19, 2011, which command would you enter in the hopes of
recording the next occurrence?
A. tail-facc*0219
B. check_errors 20110219
C. logadm -p opmon |7
D. logcat -p agent
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which hardware component is required for a hard dialer Proactive Contact 5.X.?
A. Avaya Application Enablement Services (AES) 3.1 or later
B. Avaya Enhanced Network Bus Controller (ENBC)
C. Avaya Communication Manager (CM) 3.1 or later
D. TN-744-based Call Classifier Cards version "e" or later
Answer: B

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