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Exam Code: COG-632
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer)

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NO.1 Which of the following is true when applying object security in Framework Manager?
A. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other
objects remain accessible to all users.
B. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other
objects will not be accessible to all users.
C. Allow overrides Deny if specified in the properties of the object.
D. Child objects only inherit security from their parent if the Inherit property is set to Yes.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 10 security environment.?
A. Cognos 10 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time.
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined.
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups
and roles defined in the authentication providers.
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and
roles (of which users are members), not individual users.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of
the following Framework Manager objects?
A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.
Answer: A

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NO.4 With respect to Cognos 10 security, which of the following is true of the Cognos namespace?
A. Only contains predefined groups and roles.
B. Can be used to create custom groups, roles and users.
C. Can be used to create Cognos 10 specific groups and roles.
D. Can be deleted if a different namespace is used to secure the environment.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in
Framework Manager?
A. Groups and roles can be created in the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects.
B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every object in a Framework
Manager project is visible to everyone.
C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups is denied access to an object. The other group is
granted access to the object. The result is that user has access to the object.
D. Granting access to an object for one user, group or role (except the Everyone and All
Authenticated Users groups), implicitly denies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: COG-645
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author)

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NO.1 Which term below best describes the selected cell in the crosstab?
A. Level
B. member
C. Tuple
D. Revenue
Answer: C

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NO.2 To create a report from the data source shown, what entities will the report author use?
A. Members
B. Values
C. Attributes
D. MUNs
Answer: B

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NO.3 What kind of authoring style uses the filter function?
A. Relational
B. Conformed
C. Dimensional
D. DMR
Answer: C

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NO.4 In a crosstab, Campaign is in the rows area, Order method type is in the columns area, and Quantity is
the measure. Campaign and Order method type are specified in the query. The report runs, displaying
quantity values for all years. Why does this happen?
A. The dimension member from that dimension is implied.
B. The order method member from that dimension is implied.
C. The aggregate member from that dimension is implied.
D. The default member from that dimension is implied.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When would a report author define a set.?
A. To create a slicer to focus on a specific number of years of data in a report.
B. To change the crosstab node member properties for a level.
C. To use as a summary function to return the total of the specified members.
D. To return members from different hierarchies of the same dimension.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-181
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS v7.1, Application Development)

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NO.1 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive (.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent Decision Service
is incomplete and does not allow for execution. When verifying the application, the developer realizes that
the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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NO.5 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-561
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 Implem)

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NO.1 Where is the provinfo file stored?
A. /var/cache
B. /var/support/
C. root directory
D. admin directory
Answer: B

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NO.2 Log Evidence is enabled for an event and an administrator wants to review the packet content. Where
in the Local Management Interface is this log file downloaded?
A. under Security Settings, select the policy that logs the event, click on Download Log, and the save file
B. select Review, under Downloads select Logs and Packet Captures, select the files, and click Download
C. on the Security Dashboard, click the Evidence Logs link, click all files related to the event, and save the
files
D. select Home Dashboard, scroll down to the section on evidence logs, select the log file(s), and click
Download
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which area of the IBM Protocol Analysis Module technology prevents Skype from using enterprise
network bandwidth?
A. Data Security
B. Application Control
C. Threat Detection and Prevention
D. Client-side Application Protection
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two purposes for the Quarantine Rules in the Response Tuning page in the Local
Management Interface? (Choose two.)
A. add new quarantine rules
B. set network configuration options
C. temporarily disable a quarantine rule
D. review rules generated in response to intruder events
E. define how the appliance should send notifications when it detects an intrusion in the network
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Where in the Local Management Interface is the location of the date and time of the last backup of an
IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 viewable?
A. Evidence log
B. Message log
C. System Dashboard
D. Security Dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where in the IBM Security SiteProtector System Console can a customer find the link status of the
Security Interfaces on an IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. the networkinfo section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
B. the Intrusion Prevention section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
C. the Security Interfaces section on the Health Summary Network tab in the appliance Properties screen
D. the Internal Communication section on the Health Summary System tab in the appliance Properties
screen
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer wants to change the severity of an IBM Protocol Analysis Module signature from high to low
in a given protection domain. Which policy meets this requirement?
A. Security Events
B. Open Signatures
C. System Updates
D. X-Force Virtual Patch
Answer: A

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NO.8 How is a firewall rule configured to block remote desktop (RDP) access for all interfaces and all Virtual
Local Area Networks.?
A. protocol=TCP, source port exclude RDP
B. action=ignore, select Interfaces, protocol=TCP, port=3389
C. keep all default settings but change the target port to 3389
D. action=drop, protocol=UDP, target port uncheck any and enter 3389
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which interface mode is required in order for quarantine response rules to work?
A. Bypass Mode
B. Inline Protection Mode
C. Inline Simulation Mode
D. Passive Monitoring Mode
Answer: B

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NO.10 Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) exclusions have been added to a Protection Domain, however
events from those VLANs seem to be generated anyway. What is the most likely cause?
A. A VLAN cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
B. Multiple VLANs cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
C. Incorrect interfaces have been specified in a custom Protection Domain.
D. The same exception has not been created on the Global Protection Domain.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which file can be imported or compiled, and defines the format of SNMP traps for security events
responses in the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. iss.mib
B. ibm.mib
C. linux.mib
D. snmp.mib
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two user notification response object types are available in IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. SMS
B. E-mail
C. Remedy
D. Voicemail
E. SNMP Trap/Inform
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 What are two restrictions placed on remote users using IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention
System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot reboot the appliance.
B. They cannot log in to the local console.
C. They cannot change the local user account passwords.
D. They cannot save changes to policies in the Web interface.
E. They cannot log in to the appliance when the authentication server is down.
Answer: C,E

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NO.14 Where would a user be added to allow a remote user to access the IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3 Local Management Interface?
A. the Remote Access policy in IBM Security SiteProtector System (SiteProtector)
B. the User Management utility in SiteProtector
C. the Accounts and Passwords page in the Web interface
D. the Password Management menu in the SSH Configuration menu
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which file is accessed on the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 appliance to
determine why it is Active with Errors in IBM Security SiteProtector System?
A. Boot log file
B. Kernel log file
C. Engine0 log file
D. Messages log file
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-423
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Solution Developer - Information Analyzer v8.5)

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NO.1 You submitted a column analysis job with the "Retain Scripts" set to no. The column analysis job
finished with an "error encountered" final message. You have access to the DataStage Director client.
Which option would allow you to find the source of the error.?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine the error.
B. Rerun the job with the "Retain Scripts" turned on. The error message will be returned to the Information
Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and examine the
job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage Director, release
the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information Analyzer analysis
database.
Which statement is true?
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When creating a Scheduling View, which two of the following options can be configured? (Choose
two.)
A. Status > Schedule > Pending
B. Status > Task Run > Abnormally Ended
C. Status > Task Run > Successfully Ended
D. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Export Project
E. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Report Execution
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of the reporting
functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule definition in an
existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProjectName>&rule
Name=<YourRuleName>
Answer: B

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NO.6 When analyzing large number of columns in Information Analyzer, which two components may require
capacity planning review? (Choose two.)
A. Disk space on the Engine layer.
B. Disk space on the Application Server.
C. Buffer pools on the Application Server.
D. Information Server Metadata repository.
E. Information Analyzer Analysis database.
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two statements identify ways
you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN's (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN's are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.
Answer: B

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NO.9 While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will allow you to
troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with issues and
resolutions.
You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you create and
review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report
Answer: C

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NO.11 In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction of the analysis
and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis database) for
the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using Information server
security to restrict access.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records. What steps can
you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates; apply duplicate
check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase the number of
possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns;
incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are setting up an automated process to run a set of data rules on a weekly basis. You want to
evaluate the execution status via the Information Analyzer command line interface (CLI) before running
subsequent reports. Which of the following do you need to evaluate?
A. Select the -runTasks option specifying the -getExecutionStatus parameter and evaluate the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
B. Select the -getExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
C. Select the -getExecutableRule option specifying the -getExecutionHistory and -ruleName parameters
and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleResult> element.
D. Select the -getExecutableRule/ExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and
evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleExecutionHistory> element.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information Server console
installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited (csv) file.
Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as a
Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as
a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the TXT output
option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option providing the
correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution option providing
the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting stylesheet ; run
the command and send the file.
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: 000-617
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified System Admin - DB2 10 System Admin for z/OS)

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the dynamic statement cache?
A. The dynamic statement cache resides in an above-the-bar pool.
B. Performance problems can occur if the dynamic statement cache is too small.
C. The REOPT(VARS) bind option is necessary in order to store the access path for a dynamic SQL
statement in the dynamic statement cache.
D. When updating statistics for an object manually, you need to invalidate statements in the dynamic
statement cache that refer to this object using RUNSTATS REPORT NO UPDATE NONE against the
object.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The standard audit trace has limitations. Which statement is true?
A. You can audit the catalog tables.
B. You can audit every access to a table.
C. You can audit all utilities including DSN1.... ones.
D. You can start a specific audit trace at DB2 startup.
Answer: D

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NO.3 To satisfy a requirement to track and report on the administrative changes made by users with system
DBADM authority, which DB2 catalog table must be modified to enable this requirement.?
A. SYSIBM.SYSDBAUTH
B. SYSIBM.SYSRESAUTH
C. SYSIBM.SYSUSERAUTH
D. SYSIBM.SYSAUDITPOLICIES
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a production DB2 subsystem, the display of database DBFW8401 shows that pages have been
added to the LPL. The indexes for the database have the COPY NO attribute.
Which utility is used to remove these pages from the LPL status?
A. REPAIR
B. RECOVER
C. CHECK INDEX
D. REBUILD INDEX
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have implemented hash access on a production table. In order to optimize hash access
performance you need to monitor the storage space utilized by hash access. How would you accomplish
this?
A. View real time statistics for the table.
B. Run RUNSTATS with the UPDATE SPACE option.
C. Issue the -DISPLAY DATABASE(*) SPACENAM(*) USE command.
D. Utilize a monitoring profile using the -DISPLAY PROFILE command.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have just defined the profile monitoring tables and related indexes using the DSNTIJSG job in the
SDSNSAMP library. In order to monitor the number of remote threads and connections you must insert
rows into the SYSIBM.DSN_PROFILE_TABLE and SYSIBM.DSN_PROFILE_ATTRIBUTES tables to
specify the monitoring functions to be used.
What is the next step in this process?
A. Issue the -START PROFILE command.
B. Issue the -DISPLAY THREAD command.
C. Issue the -START TRACE (MONITOR) command.
D. No further steps are needed. DB2 will automatically begin monitoring those DB2 threads identified in
the monitoring profile.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does the command -ALTER GROUPBUFFERPOOL(GBP1) RATIO(5.6) do?
A. Changes the ratio of directory entries to the local cache entries (LCE).
B. Changes the desired ratio of the number of lock entries to the number of data pages in the group buffer
pool.
C. Changes the desired ratio of the number of directory entries to the number of data pages in the group
buffer pool.
D. Changes the desired number of the data pages cast out to those that remain in the group buffer pool
when the group buffer pool checkpoint occurs.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Assume that you have implemented identity propagation and that the distributed user name is 'MARY'.
You have mapped this user name to the RACF user ID 'DB2USER1'. Which statement is true?
A. 'MARY' is authenticated by RACF.
B. 'DB2USER1' must be defined on the remote system.
C. Remote requests execute with the authority of 'MARY'.
D. Audit records for this transaction contains both RACF user ID 'DB2USER1' and the distributed user
'MARY'.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The DB2 command -SET SYSPARM lets you change subsystem parameters while DB2 is up.
What is the correct syntax for loading a different DSNZPARM load module?
A. -SET SYSPARM LOAD
B. -SET SYSPARM RELOAD
C. -SET SYSPARM(dsnzparm name)
D. -SET SYSPARM LOAD(dsnzparm name)
Answer: D

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NO.10 In order to separate DB2 security administration duties from DB2 system administration duties, which
step(s) must be performed?
A. Set both SECADM system parameters to an authorization ID and Role.
B. Specify YES to SEPARATE_ SECURITY and set one SYSADM system parameter to an authorization
ID or Role.
C. Specify YES to SEPARATE_ SECURITY and set one SECADM system parameter to an authorization
ID or Role.
D. Specify YES to PROTECT parameter and set one SECADM system parameter to an
authorization ID or Role.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which directory table space CANNOT be REORGed in DB2 10?
A. DSNDB01.SPT01
B. DSNDB01.SCT02
C. DSNDB01.SYSUTILX
D. DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
Answer: C

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NO.12 To cancel any type of thread using a -CANCEL THREAD command what information is needed?
A. The token of the thread to be canceled.
B. The luwid of the thread to be canceled.
C. The connection name of the thread to be canceled.
D. The correlation name of the thread to be canceled.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You start your DB2 subsystem and check the messages in the MSTR address space. DB2 issues
message DSNJ120I indicating that it detected unequal timestamps in the BSDSs. What is the required
action to allow DB2 to start successfully?
A. DB2 restart is halted and an open reply lets you use the -RECOVER BSDS command to fix the
problem.
B. Use the VSAM REPRO utility to overwrite the older BSDS with the most recent one and issue START
DB2 again.
C. DB2 shuts down when this problem occurs. You must issue -START DB2 again and DB2 will try to
re-synchronize the BSDSs now.
D. No action is needed. DB2 automatically tries to re-synchronize and continues with the restart if the
re-synchronization was successful.
Answer: D

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NO.14 DB2 10 enhances the profile table monitoring facility to support the filtering and threshold monitoring for
the number of connections using which categories?
A. All local and DRDA connections.
B. Collection IDs and IP addresses.
C. Role and Authorization Identifiers.
D. Product Identifiers and Package Names.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is NOT required for recovery of the DB2 catalog at a disaster recovery site?
A. All catalog table spaces.
B. IBM defined indexes on the catalog.
C. XML objects for the catalog table spaces.
D. LOB objects for the catalog table spaces.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which limiting attribute CANNOT be included in the definition of a trusted context?
A. A DB2 SSID.
B. An IPv4 address.
C. An IPv6 address.
D. A secure domain name.
Answer: A

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NO.17 What process does the RESTORE SYSTEM utility NOT perform?
A. Restores logs from the log copy pool.
B. Applies logs to the data to a point in time.
C. Restores data from the database copy pool.
D. Applies only logs to the data if LOGONLY is specified.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement describes a DB2 ROLE?
A. A role is a privilege.
B. A role is a USERID.
C. A role is a RACF entity.
D. A role is a database entity.
Answer: D

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NO.19 When a data sharing member fails, what is the final state of the connections to the DB2 lock structure
in the coupling facility?
A. It is finally marked as FAILING.
B. It is immediately marked as FAILED PERSISTENT for the failing member.
C. It is marked as FAILING and then finally changed to FAILED PERSISTENT upon receiving
DiscFailCon from all members.
D. It is marked as FAILED PERSISTENT and then finally changed to FAILING upon receiving
DiscFailCon from all members.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the process to automatically start an audit policy at DB2 startup?
A. Specify DSNZPARM subsystem parameters AUDITST = *
B. Specify DSNZPARM subsystem parameter AUDITST = YES
C. Specify DSNZPARM subsystem parameter TRACSTR = YES
D. UPDATE SYSIBM.SYSAUDITPOLICIES SET DB2START=Y for the row of the audit policy to be auto
started.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-539
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Administration )

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NO.1 What is supported and eligible for export from one IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) server to
another?
A. network attached storage nodes
B. data from a Centera device class
C. data from a server with retention protection enabled
D. file data from a TSM V6.2 server to TSM V6.1 server storage
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which task menu is used when configuring IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Backup-Archive client
preferences in the Backup-Archive graphical user interface?
A. Edit
B. Utilities
C. Actions
D. Options
Answer: B

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NO.3 A network data management protocol (NDMP) network attached storage device must be backed to
IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM). Which interfaces are supported to perform this function?
A. TSM Client Scheduler, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line client
B. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, NDMP command line client, administrative command line client
C. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line
client
D. TSM NDMP graphical user interface, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command
line client
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two requirements for a properly working Web client? (Choose two.)
A. a supported Web server
B. an administrator with at least node owner authority
C. the client acceptor daemon service dsmcad is set up and running
D. the passwordacces option in the client option file is set to prompt
E. an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 server with an extended edition license
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which option must be set to perform IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 database backups to certain
device classes?
A. set dbbackup
B. set dbrecovery
C. set dbdevclass
D. set drmdbbackupexpiredays
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which privilege class is needed to issue administrator commands that only affect specific storage
pools?
A. Restricted Policy privilege
B. Restricted Storage privilege
C. Unrestricted Policy privilege
D. Unrestricted Storage privilege
Answer: B

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NO.7 How does an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 administrator create a separate place for backing up a
client's data that must have the most current versions of files for a single server?
A. define a full backup pool
B. define a file device class
C. define an active data pool
D. define a disk storage pool
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which privilege class is required to create the Disaster Recovery Plan?
A. System
B. Security
C. Operator
D. Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which configuration file must be edited to enable journal backups in AIX?
A. dsm.opt
B. dsm.sys
C. journal.ini
D. tsmjbbd.ini
Answer: D

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NO.10 How is an Oracle database backed up consistently with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) when
Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) is not available?
A. shut down the database then select the TSM API
B. leave the database open and use the TSM Backup-Archive client
C. shut down the database then use the TSM Backup-Archive client
D. backup the database using Oracle tools and then use TSM Data Protector for Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which option allows users to specify how directory structures are handled when performing a restore
to a new location?
A. restoredir
B. preservedir
C. restorepath
D. preservepath
Answer: D

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NO.12 While attempting to configure a network attached storage (NAS) backup, an IBM Storage Manager
V6.2 (TSM) administrator is unable to access the Web client graphical user interface to initiate a network
data management protocol backup. What are two reasons? (Choose two.)
A. authentication=on is not set on the TSM server
B. insufficient access rights to traverse the NAS file system
C. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in dsm.opt
D. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in ndmp.opt
E. passwordaccess=generate is not set on the Backup-Archive client
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 What are two optional recovery log types when implementing an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2
server? (Choose two.)
A. Active log
B. Active log mirror
C. Archive Mirror log
D. Active Fail-over log
E. Archive Fail-over log
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 What is the function of the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) client scheduler.?
A. It enables security for the scheduling service.
B. It enables tasks to be performed automatically.
C. It enables the client to control access to the TSM server.
D. It enables backup scheduling on AIX or Linux clients only.
Answer: B

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NO.15 How is a management class MC associated with a file or file group in the client options file?
A. update <file name> MC
B. include <file name> MC
C. associate <file name> MC
D. set policy <file name> MC
Answer: B

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NO.16 What must be defined for data deduplication?
A. active data pool
B. ProtecTIER device
C. client staging area
D. storage pool for deduplication
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which command displays the Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM) Plan parameters?
A. Show DRMPLAN
B. Query DRMSTATUS
C. Query Recoveryplan
D. Query DRMRECOVERYPLAN
Answer: B

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NO.18 What ensures that VMware full and incremental backups do not backup subfile data relating to the
virtual machine node being protected?
A. exclude.subfile *:\..\*
B. vmbacknodelete YES
C. exclude.dir subfile=no
D. include.subfile g:\tsm\vmbackup\...\*
Answer: A

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NO.19 What type of information does the Client Activity History Report provide in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.2?
A. image backups
B. client nodes in session
C. client nodes participating
D. network data management protocol backups
Answer: C

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NO.20 After configuring the monitoring agent for monitoring, which application is used to display the IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.2 near real-time status?
A. IBM Tivoli Integrated Portal
B. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. IBM Tivoli Monitoring Center
D. IBM Tivoli Productivity Center
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M194
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Guardium Sales Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 According to Verizon Business 2009 Data Breach Report, the majority of compromised
data__________?
A. occurs on database server level
B. resides outside of the firewall
C. is a result of laptop theft
D. happens because of insecure storage devices
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the European Telco case, one of their immediate needs is to _________.
A. protect privacy of call records for compliance with data privacy laws
B. meet governance requirements
C. optimize database usage
D. migrate from Oracle to Microsoft database technology
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is false.?
A. Oracle Audit Vault does not rely on native logs.
B. Oracle Database Audit/Vault does not enforce separation of duties.
C. Oracle Database Vault does not support heterogeneous DB environments
D. Oracle Database/Audit Vault does not provide real-time monitoring and alerting.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-Z03
Exam Name: IBM (zEnterprise Solution Sales Update Mastery)

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NO.1 A customer currently has blades of several types, including Intel-based blades, and is using
virtualization.Without having more details of the customer
current environment what could be
presented as an advantage of the Unified Resource Manager and zBX?
A.Ability to define and run more virtual machines per virtualized blade
B.Managing the workloads in the blades according to goal-oriented policies
C.Employing a single hypervisor across all the platforms
D.Ability to easily relocate virtual machines across platforms
Answer: B

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NO.2 What software pricing option should be considered for a z/OS environment on a stand alone z114?
A.VWLC and ELA
B.IPLA or EWLC
C.AEWLC
D.PSLC
Answer: C

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NO.3 When discussing z/OS with a new customer WLM was presented as a key differentiator. However the
customer countered its current competitive system also has a workload manager.Which one is a key
difference of z/OS WLM?
A.Manages in a holistic way all the workload elements running in z/OS
B.Can manage a multi-tier workload residing in the zEnterprise CPC and in the zBX
C.Manages processes, memory and I/O, minimizing resources
D.Minimizes required resources across the zEnterprise (CPC and zBX)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has many highly variable Linux workloads that would virtualize very well with z/VM. The
customer has no z/VM skills.The customer wants to implement a capacity management and chargeback
system.Which of these alternatives would be the most appropriate zEnterprise solution?
A.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with Unified Resource Manager to provide a simplified management interface
B.zBX since recent announcements shift focus away from Linux on z/VM as a viable solution
C.Linux on Power blades in a zBX with Unified Resource Manager for simplified management
D.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with services to setup and provide ongoing support for z/VM
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has a large number of distributed servers running Linux.Which of the following is a potential
benefit of consolidating these systems onto a System z running Linux?
A.If the distributed servers are highly utilized, they make good candidates to consolidate onto a System z
running Linux.
B.Linux on System z is controlled by IBM, it is far superior to Linux on other platforms.
C.Server consolidation may result in a reduced footprint, environmental savings, and increased speed of
virtual Linux server creation.
D.Consolidating onto a System z can increase security since the use of HiperSockets is required.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M249
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Financial Performance Management Sales Mastery Test vl)

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NO.1 Which agenda item is assigned the highest priority by Chief Information Officers (ClOs), according to
studies by IBM and Gartner?
A. compliance
B. business analytics
C. mobility solutions
D. risk management
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which product is best suited for a company looking to automate their electronic financial reporting
processes to ensure regulatory compliance?
A. Clarity FSR
B. OpenPages ITG
C. Cognos Controller
D. Cognos TMl
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is NOT one of the three ways the world is changing according to the IBM Smarter Planet
message?
A. intricate
B. instrumented
C. interconnected
D. intelligent
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which financial reporting format, supported by IBM Clarity FSR, is quickly becoming the global standard
for exchanging business information because of how efficiently data can be tagged and analyzed.?
A. GAAP
B. XBRL
C. IFRS
D. EDGAR
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization is struggling to efficiently meet the financial reporting requirements in their country.
Which offering is designed specifically to help this customer automate their entire compliance lifecycle?
A. OpenPages UG
B. OpenPages Audit
C. OpenPages Operational Risk Management (ORM)
D. OpenPages Financial Controls Management (FCM)
Answer: D

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