2013年10月31日星期四

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Exam Code: 000-M66
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Information Server Technical Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which one of the following is a data quality challenge that can be addressed by QualityStage?
A. Too many data values for a single domain.
B. Too many records containing the default value for a single domain.
C. Data values appear on report in different format than stored.
D. Buried information.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Informational Content of a QualityStage Match phase report measures ______________
A. the severity of false positives and false negatives.
B. the significance of discriminating value and frequency.
C. the degree of importance of a particular data field.
D. the confidence of a match.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In DataStage, Table Definitions are imported through ______________________?
A. DataStage Administrator.
B. Information Server Web Console.
C. DataStage Designer.
D. DataStage Director.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which tool would you recommend to get an accurate view of the quality of data stored in a DB2 or an
Oracle table, and be able to determine easily the frequency distribution and the format of that data?
A. Use the native DBMS catalog tables, and retrieve the detailed statistics
B. InfoSphere Metadata Workbench
C. InfoSphere Information Analyzer
D. InfoSphere FastTrack
Answer: C

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NO.5 In which scenario are the MetaBrokers and Bridges not needed?
A. When you are using the Import/Export Manager utility
B. When you export a business glossary model fromInfoSphere Data Architect to the Metadata Server
C. When you export a physical model fromInfoSphere Data Architect to the Metadata Server
D. When you use Metadata Workbench to see the data and job lineage
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-170
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Analysis)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The "tolerance interval" in the intermediate timer event is used to:
A. specify an additional delay if the work is in progress.
B. build in a certain level of tolerable inefficiency into the process.
C. take into account weekends, holidays and other task downtimes.
D. specify an additional delay irrespective of whether the work is in progress or not.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the two functional gateway modes?
A. Splits and Joins
B. Simple and Complex
C. Exclusive and Inclusive
D. Decision and Conditional
Answer: A

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NO.3 "Escalations" are best used in WebSphere Lombardi Edition modeling to:
A. automate processes by using non-human tasks.
B. add a level of sophistication to the process model.
C. improve the process by solving problematic tasks.
D. ensure metrics relating to process cycle times are met.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the key benefit of a graphical notation standard for process modeling? A graphical notation
standard:
A. simplifies the business process requirements gathering.
B. allows for the proper evaluation of a documentation plus modeling tool.
C. clearly articulates process details, including problem information diagrammatically
D. allows for clear collaboration between business analysis, process design and developer
implementation.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What type of gateway is used when only one sequence flow is chosen to satisfy a condition?
A. Inclusive Gateway
B. Exclusive Gateway
C. Parallel Gateway
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-989
Exam Name: IBM (Building Portlets with IBM WebSphere Portlet Factory 6.1.5)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Tom has added several new portlet models to his existing project, and would now like to add them to a
page on his development portal server. How does Tom get his new portlets to the server so that he can
add them to a page?
A. Use the "Publish Application" project level menu.
B. Use the "Run As/Run on Server" project level menu.
C. Use the file system copy command to move them to the deployed application.
D. Export the project as a "WebSphere Portlet Factory Zip Archive" and import it into the portal.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To run and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIsthat are specific to the target server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Heather is preparing to move an application into production, and has discovered that there is an option
to create a portlet WAR file or an application WAR file. What is the conceptual difference between the
two?
A. An application WAR is a prerequisite for deploying aportlet WAR; it represents the container hierarchy
for portlets.
B. An application WAR can deploy multipleportlets at the same time in an application, while a portlet WAR
represents a single instance of a portlet.
C. An application WAR can include profiling for personalization and configuration, while aportlet WAR is
static and cannot be configured with profiling.
D. Aportlet WAR represents a portlet designed to run on a portal server, while an application WAR is a
stand-alone application that has no dependencies on portal containers so it can be deployed to an
application server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Valerie is starting development of her first portlet using WebSphere Portlet Factory. After opening
Eclipse, which perspective should she select?
A. WebSphere Portal
B. Portlet Development
C. Database Development
D. WebSphere Portlet Factory
Answer: D

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NO.5 Jalen has both Rational Application Developer and IBM Rational Software Architect and Eclipse
available to her as IDEs for working with WebSphere Portlet Factory. Which of the following is a difference
that will help her decide which IDE to select?
A. Eclipse provides more efficient class loading.
B. The Rational software IDE is more tightly integated with WebSphere Portal, providing a more seamless
development-staging-testing environment.
C. The Eclipse IDE gives her greater access to test environments, reducing the time required to perform
iterative development and testing.
D. WebSphere Portlet Factory runs equally well in both, so she should base her decision on the
environment with which she is most comfortable and her team supports.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-036
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which statement best defines an item kit?
A. A collection of items that are used as a single unit.
B. Items common to multiple organizations within a company.
C. Individual serialized assets that are defined by a common item number.
D. A collection of parts and subassemblies that are needed to build an asset.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the automation of routing records called in IBM Maximo Asset Management?
A. Routes
B. Workflow
C. Work Process
D. Business Rules Routing
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which application associates a service request to a work order?
A. Activities and Tasks
B. Work Order Tracking
C. Assignment Manager
D. Service Level Agreements
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which application can items be directly added to a storeroom?
A. Inventory
B. Storerooms
C. Item Master
D. Issues and Transfers
Answer: C

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NO.5 When creating a classification involving this scheme, what is the correct parent classification path
for conveyor issues?6 production issue / 601 product transport / 60101 conveyor issues / 6010101
conveyor stopped
A. 601
B. 60101
C. 6 / 601
D. 6 / 601 / 60101
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which item would most likely be considered a rotating asset.?
A. valve
B. water line
C. small bolt
D. fire extinguisher
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the expected result of clicking the Select Craft button on this work order under Plans tab >
Labor sub tab?
A. It results in an error message.
B. The Select Craft dialog box opens.
C. The task 10 line expands for craft selection.
D. New rows are added to the Labor sub tab based on selections from the Select Craft dialog box.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are three ways a Purchase Order can be created? (Choose three.)
A. RFQ
B. Master Contracts
C. Desktop Requisition
D. Issues and Transfers
E. Purchase Requisition
F. Inventory Reorder Point
Answer: AEF

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NO.9 When adding a craft and skill to a labor record, which two optional data elements can be entered?
(Choose two.)
A. Rate
B. Shift
C. Supervisor
D. Skill Level
E. Default Storeroom
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which statement is true about a service request?
A. All associated work orders have the relationship of Related.
B. Associated work orders inherit the asset associated with the service request.
C. Work orders created from a service request can be deleted from the Related Records tab.
D. Associated work orders can be classed as: ACTIVITY, CHANGE, RELEASE, WORKORDER.
Answer: B

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NO.11 In which application are logical systems created?
A. Assets application
B. Inventory application
C. Locations application
D. Item Master application
Answer: C

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NO.12 In addition to the Asset tab, on which other tab can an asset hierarchy be created?
A. Features
B. Spare Parts
C. Relationships
D. Specifications
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statement is true about a Purchase Request (PR)?
A. A PR must be approved to become a Purchase Order.
B. Multiple Bill To values can be applied to a multiple line PR.
C. A single PR line can be copied to multiple Purchase Orders lines.
D. On an internal PR, a storeroom is specified as the Vendor on the PR tab.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A manufacturing company wants to implement a preventive maintenance strategy for the monthly
inspection of 300 fire extinguishers. Each fire extinguisher is an asset and they are identical so each one
utilizes the same job plan. Additional goals are to minimize the number of monthly work orders and track
the inspection completion date of each asset.When creating the route, what would be the best selection
for the option: "When this Route is Applied to a Work Order, the Route Stops will Become"?
A. Work Order Tasks
B. Child Work Orders
C. Sequenced Job Plans
D. entries in the Work Order's Multi Asset, Location and CI table
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which three buttons are found on the Search toolbar on the List tab? (Choose three.)
A. Bookmarks
B. Create KPI
C. Save Query
D. New Search
E. Delete Query
F. Advanced Search
Answer: ACF

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Exam Code: 000-533
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Application Developer - Informix 11.50)
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Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which optional component writes incoming event data to disk based on user-created event filters?
A. Incident Safe
B. Event Logger
C. Event Archiver
D. Agent Archiver
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many computer(s) does the Recommended option install on in the Deployment Manager?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.3 What function does the Deployment Manager provide in IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0
SP8.1 (SiteProtector)?
A. It provides a Web-based interface for users to install SiteProtector components.
B. It automatically distributes X-Press Update Server updates to SiteProtector components.
C. It generates Proventia Desktop Agent builds and distributes them to computers on a network.
D. It provides a Web-based interface for users to install service packs to SiteProtector components.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which product combination would merit the consideration of IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0
SP8.1 SecurityFusion?
A. IBM Network Intrusion and IBM Security Server Protection
B. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention Systems and IBM Security Desktop
C. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention and IBM Security Network Enterprise Scanner
D. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention and IBM Security Virtual Server Protection for VMware
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which pre-defined security user group permits an employee to work with events and all reports except
for Permissions and Audit Detail?
A. Analyst
B. Operator
C. Administrator
D. Event Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 According to the scalability guidelines for a large site, a customer should have at least what speed hard
disks available to the database server?
A. 5400 RPM
B. 7200 RPM
C. 10000 RPM
D. 15000 RPM
Answer: D

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NO.7 A corporation is deploying IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 and plans to use Enterprise
Scanner to scan their various business departments each with their own assessment policy. Additionally,
network subnets may require a different policy within each department. Which top to bottom group
structure hierarchy best satisfies their needs?
A. ACME > Department > Subnet
B. Subnet > Department > ACME
C. Subnet > ACME > Department
D. ACME > Subnet > Department
Answer: A

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NO.8 What must be entered during the Agent Manager installation?
A. SQL Server Address, Agent Manager Address
B. Application Server Address, SQL Server Address
C. SQL Authentication Method, Agent Manager Address
D. Application Server Address, SQL Authentication Method
Answer: B

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NO.9 The customer is planning to deploy 50,000 desktops. At a minimum, how many standalone Event
Collector / Agent Manager pairs should be configured to communicate with the database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two virtual platforms are supported for running IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1?
(Choose two.)
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. VMware ESX Server V4.x
C. VMware ESX Server V3.x
D. VMware Workstation V7.1
E. Microsoft Virtual Server 2003
Answer: BC

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NO.11 How much system hard drive space is required for the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1
Database in the Recommended option?
A. 9 GB
B. 18 GB
C. 27 GB
D. 36 GB
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer has deployed an Express installation. What is the default action when the database
reaches 85% of capacity?
A. The database will continue processing normally without purging.
B. The database will begin purging up to 5% of the oldest data from the database.
C. The database will begin purging up to 10% of the oldest data from the database.
D. The database will begin purging up to 15% of the oldest data from the database.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which components are installed during step two of a Recommended installation using the Deployment
Manager in IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1?
A. Site Database, Console
B. Site Database, Event Collector
C. Application Server, Event Collector
D. Application Server, Agent Manager
Answer: D

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NO.14 How is an Event Collector upgraded in the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Console?
A. right-click on Event Collector > Update > Apply XPU
B. right-click on Event Collector > UpdateServer > Update EventCollector
C. using the Manual Upgrader tool, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply Update
D. using the X-Press Update Server, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply Update
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are two requirements before upgrading the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1
Core component? (Choose two.)
A. close all local consoles
B. put the SQL Server in single user mode
C. reboot the server after applying the update
D. disable all Event Collectors/Agent Managers
E. ensure administrative rights in order to log on to the Application Server computer
Answer: AE

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NO.16 What can be used to create a valid group membership rule?
A. AssetID
B. ProductID
C. IP Address
D. MAC Address
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three components are installed individually by the Deployment Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Event Archiver
B. Agent Manager
C. Database Server
D. Application Server
E. X-Press Update Server
F. SecurityFusion Module
Answer: ABE

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NO.18 According to the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 scalability guidelines, what is the
maximum event rate and maximum heartbeat rate per day for a small deployment?
A. 25,000 events / 500 heartbeats
B. 50,000 events / 1,000 heartbeats
C. 100,000 events / 5,000 heartbeats
D. 125,000 events / 7,000 heartbeats
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which three operating systems meet the requirements for installing the IBM Security SiteProtector
Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Database in the Recommended option? (Choose three.)
A. Windows XP Professional SP2
B. Windows Server 2008 Standard
C. Windows 2000 Advanced Server
D. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise
E. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
F. Windows Server 2003 SP2 Standard Edition
Answer: BDF

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NO.20 Which two items are important considerations for performance? (Choose two.)
A. agent events per day
B. agent purges per day
C. agent updates per day
D. agent heartbeats per day
E. agent installations per day
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 000-537
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

000-537 (IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3 Implementation) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-537.html

NO.1 What are two common attributes used to create a person entry? (Choose two.)
A. sn
B. cn
C. uid
D. lastname
E. givenname
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 The customer wants to deploy IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3 (ITDS) in a Solaris environment. On
which two Solaris platforms can ITDS be deployed? (Choose two.)
A. PowerPC
B. Solaris 32-bit
C. SUNW,Ultra-1
D. Solaris SPARC 64-bit
E. Solaris Global Zone on Solaris 10
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 The customer has a requirement to secure LDAP communications. Which statement is true for server
authentication?
A. LDAP client must have a public key and associated client certificate in the client's key database file.
B. LDAP server must have a public key and associated client certificate in the client's key database file.
C. LDAP client must have a private key and associated server certificate in the client's key database file.
D. LDAP server must have a private key and associated server certificate in the server's key database
file.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which versions of IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) can be directly migrated to ITDS V6.3?
A. only ITDS V6.2
B. all ITDS V6.x versions
C. all previous ITDS versions
D. all ITDS V5.x and V6.x versions
Answer: B

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NO.5 Given the security requirements for securing passwords in an IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3
environment, which three encryption algorithms are available? (Choose three.)
A. des
B. md7
C. aes512
D. aes256
E. ssha384
F. ssha512
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.6 Which two attribute types are available on an objectclass definition? (Choose two.)
A. nominal
B. required
C. optional
D. unrestricted
E. generalized date syntax
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 In the IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3 (ITDS) requirements document for a customer project there is a
requirement for a proxy server for distributed data. What planning for the proxy server is necessary?
A. to act as a front-end server to distribute requests to multiple ITDS servers
B. to act as a back-end server to distribute requests to multiple ITDS servers
C. to set up logical connections between ITDS and Active Directory for distributed data
D. to set up logical connections between ITDS and SunOne Directory for distributed data
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a requirement for an IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) Proxy Server?
A. a DB2 database
B. an ITDS LDAP Server
C. an Active Directory forest
D. an IBM WebSphere Edge Server
Answer: B

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NO.9 The customer must deploy a component of IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3 (ITDS) 32-bit on AIX. Which
component can be deployed in this manner.?
A. ITDS Client
B. ITDS Server
C. ITDS Proxy Server
D. ITDS Web Administration Tool
Answer: A

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NO.10 The customer has a requirement to send updates through a proxy server. What authority should be
planned?
A. Anonymous User
B. System Administrator
C. Local Administration Group Member
D. Global Administration Group Member
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which tool can be used for an IBM Tivoli Directory Server migration?
A. idsxcfg utility
B. idsimigr utility
C. idsdiradm utility
D. idsldif2db utility
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) interfaces are used for both online backup and restore?
(Choose two.)
A. Administrator Console Tool
B. idsdbbackup command line
C. idsldapexop command line
D. ITDS Web Administration Tool
E. idsdbrestore command line
Answer: C,D

IBM exam dumps   000-537   000-537 answers real questions

NO.13 The customer would like an automated backup of their entire directory server instance configuration,
schema and data with minimal downtime. Which IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) backup methodology
would be appropriate?
A. perform the db2 backup utlity
B. perform the idsdb2ldif utility
C. configure online backup using the idsxcfg utlity
D. schedule online backup using the ITDS Web Administration Tool
Answer: D

IBM   000-537 questions   000-537

NO.14 Which action is typically taken prior to performing a migration of an IBM Tivoli Directory Server
environment?
A. backup of Audit log
B. backup of user data
C. backup of replication database
D. backup of the Changelog database
Answer: B

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NO.15 What type of objectclass is required in order to define an LDAP entry to be loaded into an IBM Tivoli
Directory Server V6.3 environment?
A. auxiliary
B. absolute
C. structural
D. hierarchical
Answer: C

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NO.16 The customer wants to install the IBM Tivoli Directory Server (ITDS) Web Administration Tool. What is a
prerequisite to accomplish this?
A. IBM HTTP Server
B. Microsoft IIS Server
C. Oracle WebLogic Server
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.17 How can a custom attribute or objectclass definition be added to the schema of an IBM Tivoli Directory
Server (ITDS) instance?
A. use the LDAP Control Center
B. use the ITDS Instance Administration Tool
C. use the ITDS Web Administration Tool
D. add the definition to the ibmslapd.conf file
Answer: C

IBM questions   000-537   000-537

NO.18 Which password encryption supports two-way encryption?
A. AES
B. MD5
C. Crypt
D. SHA1
Answer: A

IBM   000-537   000-537

NO.19 Which file format is used to load customer data?
A. DSML file from a Web Application Server
B. MS Word document of department entries
C. an XML extract from a department spreadsheet
D. LDIF file extract from a Human Resources system
Answer: D

IBM   000-537 test   000-537   000-537   000-537 exam

NO.20 Applications authenticate to the IBM Tivoli Directory Server V6.3. Which two pieces of information are
used for authentication? (Choose two.)
A. cn attribute
B. unique identified name
C. ibm-entryuuid attribute
D. userPassword attribute
E. full distinguished name
Answer: D,E

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Exam Code: 000-723
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Commerce V7.0 Application Development )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

000-723 (IBM WebSphere Commerce V7.0 Application Development ) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-723.html

NO.1 In what format are test cases written to test Management Center using the test automation framework?
A. XML file
B. ANT script
C. JUnit class
D. OpenLaszlo class
Answer: A

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NO.2 An application developer is creating different outbound queues for different message types while
integrating with WebSphere MQ. Which method of the SendMsgCmd command must be used to set the
queue destination in the custom code?
A. setMsgData
B. setConfigData
C. setContentData
D. setCommandData
Answer: B

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NO.3 An application developer needs to ensure that multiple portlets on a page and across pages can
communicate as one client with the WebSphere Commerce Server. Where in the portlet session should
the authentication callback handler object and business context object be stored?
A. contextId
B. contextKey
C. contextData
D. contextService
Answer: B

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NO.4 If the requirements are as follows, which of the URLs must the application developer use? ?Check if
any of the parents of the specified organization are locked. ?Check if the specified organization is the
parent organization of the user. If it is not, then check whether the user assumes the Organization
Participant role in the specified organization or any of its ancestors. ?Reset all contract information such
that new contracts can be applied to reflect the change in the active organization.
A. BuyerUserRegistrationUpdate URL
B. ContractSetInSession URL
C. OrgEntityUpdate URL
D. OrganizationSetInSession URL
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer places an order for two items that total $300. Item A costs $100 and is in stock. Item B
costs $200 and is not in stock but will be available in two days. The customer uses a credit card to pay for
the order. If this credit card payment method uses 'Early Approval' payment rule, which among the
following are TRUE?
A. $100 will be deposited at the time of shipment of Item A
B. $100 will be validated and deposited at the time of order capture
C. $100 will be validated and approved at the time of order capture
D. $300 will be validated at the time of order capture and deposited at the time of shipment of Item B
E. $300 will be reserved at the time of shipment of Item A and deposited at the time of shipment of Item B
Answer: A,C

IBM   000-723 braindump   000-723

NO.6 When using the 'No Validation or Reservation' payment rule, with 'finalize payment' event, what is the
target state of payment?
A. APPROVED
B. DEPOSITED
C. FINALIZED
D. DNE (Does Not Exist)
Answer: B

IBM   000-723   000-723   000-723   000-723

NO.7 The business logic layer in WebSphere Commerce runtime is implemented using the command
pattern where application logic is specified independently from the presentation layer. Which statement
about the implemented commands for the business logic layer is correct?
A. Entity beans act as an interface between the business components and the database.
B. Task commands are used to implement application logic and should not be accessed by the
presentation layer.
C. View commands are invoked by the task commands and are used to compose a view as a response to
a client request.
D. Data bean commands are invoked by the data bean manager and are used to populate fields of a data
bean with data from a persistent object.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An application developer has created a new Social Commerce adapter implementation for a new
service provider. Which of the following files must the application developer modify as part of configuring
the new adapter?
A. SocApp > config > ivy.xml
SocApp > config > adapter.config
B. SocApp > config > ivy.xml
SocApp > config > soccom_adapter.config
C. SocApp > config > soccom_instance.xml
SocApp > config > adapter.config
D. SocApp > config > soccom_config.xml
SocApp > config > soccom_adapter.config
Answer: A

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NO.9 WebSphere Commerce implements Business Object Document (BOD) processing commands to
retrieve, process, modify, and synchronize data. Identify the correct verb/response mapping in the BOD.
A. Get and Respond.
B. Process and Show.
C. Sync and ConfirmBOD.
D. Change and Acknowledge.
Answer: C

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NO.10 An application developer wants to develop new commands and refers to the Information Center
documentation to understand how the commands and tasks are mapped to the table. Under which section
would this information be found?
A. Reference
B. Tutorials
C. Developing
D. IBM Education Assistant
Answer: A

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NO.11 After migrating the store assets project, the application developer notices an exception similar to the
following example. [12/22/09 13:13:11:859 PST] 00000012 WASSessionCor I SessionContextRegistry
getSessionContext SESN0176I: Will create a new session context for application key
WC_default_host/webapp/wcs/stores [12/22/09 13:13:13:953 PST] 00000012 ValidatorPlug I
org.apache.struts.validator.ValidatorPlugIn initResources Loading validation rules file from
'/WEB-INF/validator-rules.xml' [12/22/09 13:13:35:265 PST] 00000012 TilesPlugin E
org.apache.struts.tiles.TilesPlugin initDefinitionsFactory Can't create Tiles definition factory for module ''.
[12/22/09 13:13:35:265 PST] 00000012 ActionServlet E org.apache.struts.action.ActionServlet init
Unable to initialize Struts ActionServlet due to an unexpected exception or error thrown, so marking the
servlet as unavailable. Most likely, this is due to an incorrect or missing library dependency.
javax.servlet.ServletException: org.apache.struts.tiles.DefinitionsFactoryException: IO Error while parsing
file '/WEB-INF/tiles-defs.xml'. Connection timed out: Before attempting to restart the server, the
application developer needs to:
A. change the library dependency in the WEB-INF/struts-config.xml file.
B. change the Connection Time Out value in WEB-INF/tiles-defs.xml file.
C. modify the validation rules in /WEB-INF/validator-rules.xml file.
D. modify the DTD version in the <!DOCTYPE> element of WEB-INF/tiles-defs.xml file.
Answer: D

IBM   000-723   000-723   000-723 test questions

NO.12 After running the data load utility, the application developer notices an error similar to the following: An
error occurred while attempting to populate the table ITEMSPC because the mandatory parameter
ParentProductIdentifier was missing. The ID was not resolved for the table ITEMSPC with the unique
index data [DL_PROD1_SKU1, 7000000000000000054]. Stack trace:
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.exception.DataLoadApplicationException: The ID was not
resolved for the table ITEMSPC with the unique index data [DL_PROD1_SKU1, 7000000000000000054].
at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.idresolve.IDResolverForOneTable.resolveId(IDResolverForOne
Table.java:336) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.idresolve.IDResolverImpl.resolveId(IDResolverImpl.java:266) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.businessobjectmediator.AbstractBusinessObjectMediator.resolv
eIds( AbstractBusinessObjectMediator.java:1164) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.businessobjectmediator.AbstractBusinessObjectMediator.resolv
eId(A bstractBusinessObjectMediator.java:1118) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.AbstractInventoryMediator.resolveItemSPCId(AbstractIn
vent oryMediator.java:656) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.InventoryReceiptMediator.populateRECEIPT(Inventory
Receipt Mediator.java:251) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.InventoryReceiptMediator.transform(InventoryReceiptM
ediat or.java:120) <...> Note: The information in bold represents variable information:
7000000000000000054.is the member_id, and DL_PROD1_SKU1 is the partnumber. What is the cause
of the error?
A. The item id is incorrect or missing.
B. The unique index constraint is violated.
C. The inventory value for the product is missing.
D. The inventory system being used is set to ATP while loading non-ATP data.
Answer: D

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NO.13 An application developer needs to define the store level action mapping to specify a target JSP file
which will format Atom feeds for WebSphere Commerce Web services. Where:
ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType is the name of the SDO for the noun.
SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp is the feed formatting JSP file. What should be the action
mapping in the struts-extension.xml file?
A. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaTypeAtom/0"
forward="/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
B. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaTypeAtom/<store_Id>"
forward="/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
C. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType/0"
forward="/Rest/WebContent/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
D. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType/<store_Id>"
forward="/Rest/WebContent/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
Answer: B

IBM test   000-723 original questions   000-723

NO.14 An application developer has customized the login functionality of the Madisons starter store and needs
to unit test the customization using the Storefront Test Automation Engine. If the unit test has to be
performed with two different data sets (e.g., user1 / password1, user2 / password2), how should the
application developer include the test data in the test case?
A. Include the test data in an XML data file.
B. Include both data sets in a single test automation script.
C. For each data set write a separate test automation script.
D. Invoke the test automation script from a command line and provide test data as command line
parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.15 In the Catalog Entry data model, which table represents a family of products with a common name and
description, used for fulfillment?
A. CATENTRY
B. CATENTTYPE
C. BASEITEM
D. ITEMFFMCTR
Answer: C

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NO.16 An application developer has to change the style of Social Commerce widgets. What action does the
application developer have to take?
A. Modify soccomie.css and soccom.css
B. Modify the widget definition in REST API.
C. Modify REST API, soccom.css and soccomie.css
D. Modify soccomie_style.css and soccom_style.css
Answer: A

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NO.17 When running a JUnit test case for a Business Object Document (BOD) in WebSphere Commerce
Developer, which feature of Rational Application Developer will allow the application developer to view the
request and response documents.?
A. Console
B. Code Coverage
C. TCP/IP Monitor
D. Software Analyzer
Answer: C

IBM   000-723   000-723 original questions   000-723

NO.18 An application developer needs to encrypt sensitive pieces of information while integrating the Social
Commerce sMash application with BazaarVoice. Which value in the adapter.config must be encrypted?
A. adminPassword
B. adminSecret
C. restAdminPassword
D. sharedKey
Answer: D

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NO.19 An application developer notices that a policy that is expected to grant access appears in the trace,
however it is not being applied. In addition an error similar to the following example is logged to the
trace.log file. PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed isAllowed? User=510; Action=Execute;
Protectable=com.ibm.commerce.catalog.commands.ProductDisplayCmdImpl; Owner=2002; Resource
Ancestor Orgs=2002,-2001; Resource Applicable Orgs=2002 PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed Found
PolicyName:AllUsersExecuteResellerUserCmdResourceGroup; PolicyType: 3; PolicyOwner: -2001
PolicyManagerImpl.getPolicyApplicableOrgs No organizations subscribe to a policy group with this policy
PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed Policy does not apply to the resource's applicable organizations ...
PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed PASSED? =false Apart from ensuring that the resource owner is
subscribing to the correct policy groups and subscribing the organization to the policy group, what are the
correct values to insert into the ACPLGPSUBS table?
A. orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup) and
orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
B. orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup) and
orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
C. orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)and
orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
D. orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)and
orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
Answer: A

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NO.20 An application developer is enabling WebSphere Application Server Security with Federated LDAP
Repositories using the WebSphere Commerce Integration Wizard and WebSphere Commerce Developer.
Which file must be used for setting the user Security Role, if Application Security is enabled?
A. ibm-security-ext.xml
B. ibm-security-bnd.xml
C. ibm-application-bnd.xml
D. ibm-application-ext.xml
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M76
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Master Data Management Server Technical Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which feature is used to update attribute values in party demographics native XML?
A. UPDATE SQL ?entire XML is replaced
B. XPATH ?specific XML value is updated
C. Spec version is updated
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which file defines the dtd snippet for the new attributes in data extension?
A. tcrmRequest_extension.dtd
B. myTCRM.dtd
C. tCRMResponse.dtd
D. DWLAdminrequest_extension.dtd
Answer: A

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NO.3 If SDP finds a suspect duplicate party, you may need to use the Data Stewardship feature functionality
to:.?
A. Search and inquire for parties marked as suspect duplicates
B. Collapse parties together
C. Split parties apart
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is multiform master data management?
A. Manages master data across multiple data domains
B. Manages master data across multiple data domains, provides analytical functions like a data
warehouse
C. Manages master data across multiple data domains, provides operational, collaborative, and analytical
functions
D. Focuses deeply on a single data domain; can manage master data across multiple domains when
needed; data is operational
Answer: C

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NO.5 SDP on or off is configured in which of the following:
A. configelement table
B. SDP table
C. External Rule
D. Suspect table
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M42
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Sametime Unified Telephony Basic Tech Sales Mas v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 To make a "drag-and-drop" conference, the user.?
A. selects all other users and clicks to start the conference.
B. clicks for conference and then adds users one by one.
C. asks operator to add the next user in the existing conference.
D. selects new user and drag and drops on the current call.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which tool is used to prepare the configuration information for the TAS installation?
A. A text editor is used to put all TAS configurations into the responsefile.txt file
B. A tool with the name NCPE is used to create a node.cfg file
C. There is no tool necessary. The configuration is requested during installation.
D. The configuration tool YAST is used
Answer: A

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NO.3 How many possibilities does one have to make a SUT conference call?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

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Exam Code: COG-385
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cogonos TM1 Master 385 exam)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.A client using TM1 Web, where the users are making a significant number of
changes, is experiencing sporadic delays during data entry. A snapshot of thread activity from TM1Top
was taken during a busy period as shown in the exhibit.Which proposed model/application change should
have a positive effect on this application's performance?
A. Make sure all dimension subsets are no more than 80 members long.
B. Defragment the TM1 server data directory hard drive.
C. Introduce use of Personal Workspace Writeback mode.
D. Introduce use of BatchUpdateStart() and BatchUpdateFinishWait().
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your TM1 server takes over one hour to start up. You want to speed up the start up time. You have a
multi-CPU production server and the cube rules in your TM1 application does not contain any conditional
feeders.Which tm1s.cfg parameter would you choose to help speed up the TM1 server start up time?
A. CalculationThresholdForStorage
B. AllowSeparateNandCRules
C. MaximumCubeLoadThreads
D. CheckFeedersMaximumCells
Answer: C

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NO.3 An object needs to be locked in which lock mode before modifications can begin on that object?
A. Read (R)
B. Intent Exclusive (IX)
C. ReadOnly (RO)
D. Write (W)
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two logging parameters can be used to control how much disk space the log files consume?
(Choose two.)
A. log4j.appender.S1.MemorySize
B. log4j.appender.S1.MaxFileSize
C. log4j.appender.S1.MaxBackupIndex
D. log4j.logger.TM1.MultipleFiles
Answer: B, C

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NO.5 Which three tm1s.cfg parameters must be unique to run two TM1 servers on the same production
server? (Choose three.)
A. ServerName
B. DataBaseDirectory
C. ClientMessagePortNumber
D. AdminHost
E. PortNumber
Answer: A, B, E

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